ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about managing protein intake. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should consume more plant-based protein.
- B. You should increase your intake of animal protein.
- C. You should increase your intake of high-protein foods.
- D. You should limit your intake of high-protein foods.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "You should limit your intake of high-protein foods." Clients with chronic kidney disease should reduce their intake of high-protein foods to lessen the workload on the kidneys and prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increasing intake of either plant-based or animal protein or high-protein foods can exacerbate kidney issues in individuals with chronic kidney disease.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and has gestational hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
- B. Fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL
- C. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
- D. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening gestational hypertension and should be reported to the provider. Sudden weight gain in a client with gestational hypertension can be a sign of fluid retention, which could worsen the hypertension and lead to complications like preeclampsia. The other options, blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg, fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL, and urinary output of 40 mL/hr, are within normal limits for a client with gestational hypertension and do not pose an immediate concern that requires reporting to the provider.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare professional identify as complete?
- A. Furosemide 20 mg BID.
- B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily.
- C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
- D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides the medication (Metoprolol), dosage (5 mg), route of administration (IV), and timing (now), making it a complete prescription. Choices A, B, and C lack either the route of administration or timing, making them incomplete prescriptions. For choice A, it lacks the route of administration, and for choices B and C, they lack the timing of administration.
5. How should fluid balance in a patient with heart failure be monitored?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor input and output
- C. Check for edema
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in assessing fluid balance in patients with heart failure because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid accumulation but may not be as accurate as daily weight monitoring. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.
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