a charge nurse is assisting with an emergency response following a disaster which client should be recommended for early discharge
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor. Pallor, which is paleness of the skin, is a common sign of anemia due to a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin levels. This results in reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to the paleness of the skin. Choice A, increased appetite, is not typically associated with anemia. Choice C, tachycardia (increased heart rate), can be present in anemia as the body compensates for decreased oxygenation. Choice D, hypertension (high blood pressure), is not a common finding in anemia; instead, low blood pressure may be observed due to decreased blood volume.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. When caring for a client with pneumonia, the nurse should expect tachypnea, which is rapid breathing. This occurs due to decreased oxygenation and lung function. Bradycardia (A) is not typically associated with pneumonia; instead, tachycardia may be present. Hypertension (B) is not a common manifestation of pneumonia; instead, hypotension may occur due to sepsis. Hypothermia (D) is not a typical finding in pneumonia; fever or an elevated temperature is more common.

4. What is the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine as the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock. Epinephrine is crucial in reversing the allergic reaction and restoring cardiovascular stability. Corticosteroids (Choice B) are not the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock but may be used as an adjunct therapy. Antihistamines (Choice C) can help relieve itching and hives but are not as effective as epinephrine in treating the systemic effects of anaphylaxis. Oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases of anaphylaxis, but administering epinephrine takes precedence in the management of anaphylactic shock.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with hypertension should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium, which can raise potassium levels. Choice A is incorrect as decreasing potassium intake is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as not all clients with hypertension need to take medication for life. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice does not significantly impact hypertension management.

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