Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a closed head injury and has an intraventricular catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to reduce the risk for infection?

• A. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees.
• B. Administer IV antibiotics prophylactically.
• C. Change the catheter insertion site every 24 hours.
• D. Monitor the insertion site for redness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the insertion site for redness. This intervention helps detect signs of infection early in clients with intraventricular catheters. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees is important for managing intracranial pressure but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Administering IV antibiotics prophylactically is not recommended as a routine practice due to the risk of antibiotic resistance and should only be done based on culture results. Changing the catheter insertion site every 24 hours is unnecessary and increases the risk of introducing new pathogens.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a gastrectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 94/min
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%
• C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
• D. Temperature of 37.6°C (99.7°F)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a serious condition post-gastrectomy. Hypoxemia can lead to inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues, potentially causing complications like organ dysfunction or failure. This finding requires immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are within normal ranges for a client post-gastrectomy, so they do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client with a prescription for digoxin. Which result requires withholding the medication?

• A. Digoxin 0.8 ng/mL
• B. Sodium 145 mEq/L
• C. BUN 20 mg/dL
• D. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L) can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate a need to withhold digoxin.

4. A client with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about preventing bone loss. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take a calcium supplement once a day.
• B. Avoid weight-bearing exercises.
• C. Walk for 30 minutes 3 times per week.
• D. Increase intake of high-phosphorus foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Walk for 30 minutes 3 times per week.' Walking is a weight-bearing exercise that helps prevent bone loss and improve overall health in clients with osteoporosis. Option A is incorrect because while calcium is essential for bone health, simply taking a supplement is not sufficient for preventing bone loss. Option B is incorrect because weight-bearing exercises are actually beneficial for improving bone density and strength. Option D is incorrect because high-phosphorus foods do not play a significant role in preventing bone loss in osteoporosis.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased WBC count.
• B. Decreased hemoglobin.
• C. Decreased platelet count.
• D. Positive rheumatoid factor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Positive rheumatoid factor. A positive rheumatoid factor is a common laboratory finding in clients with rheumatoid arthritis, indicating an autoimmune response. Option A, increased WBC count, is not typically associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Option B, decreased hemoglobin, and option C, decreased platelet count, are not specific laboratory findings for rheumatoid arthritis.

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