a nurse is planning care for a client who has a closed head injury and has an intraventricular catheter which of the following interventions should th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a closed head injury and has an intraventricular catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to reduce the risk for infection?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the insertion site for redness. This intervention helps detect signs of infection early in clients with intraventricular catheters. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees is important for managing intracranial pressure but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Administering IV antibiotics prophylactically is not recommended as a routine practice due to the risk of antibiotic resistance and should only be done based on culture results. Changing the catheter insertion site every 24 hours is unnecessary and increases the risk of introducing new pathogens.

2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.

3. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.

4. A client is 24 hr postoperative following an abdominal aortic aneurysm resection. Which of the following findings is a priority to report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr is indicative of decreased kidney function, potentially due to inadequate perfusion or other complications post-aneurysm resection. This finding requires immediate reporting to prevent further complications such as acute kidney injury. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing, abdominal distention, and absent bowel sounds are also important postoperative assessments but are not as critical as impaired kidney function in this scenario.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.

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