ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Check the residual volume before administering the feeding
- B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
- C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of sterile water
- D. Verify the client's tube placement
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Verifying the client's tube placement is the priority before administering any enteral feeding. This step ensures that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach or intestines, minimizing the risk of complications such as aspiration. Checking the residual volume, elevating the head of the bed, and flushing the tube are important steps but should occur after confirming the tube placement to ensure the feeding is delivered safely and effectively.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse include?
- A. Limit sodium intake to 4 grams per day.
- B. Limit protein intake to 80 grams per day.
- C. Limit saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories. This recommendation is crucial for clients with hypertension to lower cholesterol levels and promote heart health. Choice A, limiting sodium intake to 4 grams per day, is important for hypertension but not the best recommendation compared to limiting saturated fats. Choice B, limiting protein intake to 80 grams per day, is not a primary dietary concern for hypertension. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day, is not a standard recommendation for hypertension management.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
- B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.
4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional review before administering the medication?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. INR
- C. Platelet count
- D. Potassium levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Before administering enoxaparin, it is essential to review potassium levels to monitor for potential imbalances. Enoxaparin, a type of anticoagulant, does not directly affect PT, INR, or platelet count. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication. PT and INR are typically used to monitor warfarin therapy, while platelet count is essential for assessing clotting function but is not directly related to enoxaparin administration.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in the past 2 weeks.
- B. Exophthalmos.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Heat intolerance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight gain can indicate myxedema, which is a symptom commonly seen in hypothyroidism. Exophthalmos (choice B) is actually a characteristic finding of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Tachycardia (choice C) and heat intolerance (choice D) are also more indicative of hyperthyroidism rather than hypothyroidism.
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