Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has GERD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Lie flat for 30 minutes after meals.
• B. Avoid lying down after meals.
• C. Drink hot liquids with meals.
• D. Consume a high-carbohydrate snack at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid lying down after meals.' This instruction is important for clients with GERD to prevent acid reflux. Lying down after meals can worsen GERD symptoms by allowing stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because lying flat after meals can increase the risk of acid reflux. Choice C is incorrect because hot liquids may aggravate GERD symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because consuming a high-carbohydrate snack at bedtime can also trigger acid reflux in individuals with GERD.

2. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods that are high in potassium.
• B. I will avoid foods that are high in sodium.
• C. I will need to have my blood pressure checked regularly while taking this medication.
• D. I will need to have my potassium levels checked regularly while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's laboratory results. Which of the following values is a contraindication to the administration of heparin?

• A. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
• B. Platelet count 50,000/mm³
• C. White blood cell count 6,000/mm³
• D. INR 2.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count 50,000/mm³. A platelet count of 50,000/mm³ increases the risk of bleeding, making heparin contraindicated. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count can lead to excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications to heparin administration. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is within the normal range, white blood cell count of 6,000/mm³ is also normal, and an INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range for patients receiving heparin therapy.

4. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

• A. Monitor urine output
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor serum creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Blurred vision.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.

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