a nurse is planning care for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing mania which of the following interventions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is an appropriate intervention for managing mania in a client with bipolar disorder. During a manic episode, individuals often have increased energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and may engage in high-risk behaviors. Encouraging regular rest periods can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation, which may assist in stabilizing mood. Choices A and B are not as effective in managing manic symptoms, as they do not directly address the client's need for rest and relaxation. Choice D is inappropriate because placing the client in seclusion can increase feelings of anxiety and agitation, worsening the manic episode.

2. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation is being taught about nutrition during pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increasing folic acid intake is crucial during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects. Option A is incorrect because calorie requirements during pregnancy vary and are generally higher than 1,200 calories per day. Option C is not specific to pregnancy nutrition teaching, although hydration is important. Option D is incorrect as iron-rich foods are typically recommended during pregnancy to prevent anemia.

3. What is the initial action for a healthcare provider when a patient presents with shortness of breath?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial action for a healthcare provider when a patient presents with shortness of breath because it helps alleviate the patient's symptoms by improving oxygenation. Providing oxygen takes precedence over other actions such as repositioning the patient, checking for abnormal breath sounds, or assessing oxygen saturation. While these actions are important, ensuring the patient has an adequate oxygen supply is crucial in the initial management of shortness of breath.

4. Which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR for a patient on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and safety of warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio, and it measures the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B) is not specific to warfarin therapy. Monitoring platelet count (Choice C) is important but not the primary lab value for assessing warfarin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to warfarin therapy.

5. How should signs of dehydration in an elderly patient be assessed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in elderly patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity or the skin's ability to return to its normal position after being pinched. In dehydration, the skin loses its elasticity, becoming less flexible and slower to return to its original state. Checking for dry mucous membranes (Choice B), monitoring for sunken eyes (Choice C), and checking capillary refill (Choice D) are all relevant assessments in dehydration but are not as specific or sensitive as monitoring skin turgor. Dry mucous membranes and sunken eyes are indicators of dehydration, while capillary refill is more related to circulatory status and less specific to dehydration.

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