ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg
- B. Weight gain of 0.9 kg (2 lb) in 1 week
- C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Respiratory rate 16/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight gain of 0.9 kg (2 lb) in 1 week is an indication of fluid retention, which is concerning in a client with preeclampsia. This can be a sign of worsening condition requiring immediate medical attention. High blood pressure (option A) is expected in preeclampsia, a urine output of 30 mL/hr (option C) is decreased but not as urgent as the weight gain in this scenario, and a respiratory rate of 16/min (option D) is within normal limits.
2. A client who is at 38 weeks gestation, is in active labor, and has ruptured membranes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
- B. Apply fetal heart rate monitor
- C. Initiate fundal massage
- D. Initiate an oxytocin IV infusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Applying a fetal heart rate monitor is the priority action in this scenario as it helps assess the well-being of the fetus during labor. This monitoring is crucial to detect any signs of fetal distress and guide interventions. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) is not a priority at this time unless there are specific indications. Initiating fundal massage (Choice C) is not necessary in this situation as the focus should be on fetal assessment. Initiating an oxytocin IV infusion (Choice D) is not indicated until the stage of labor and the progress of labor are determined.
3. A client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty is at risk for hip dislocation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent this complication?
- A. Position the client supine with a pillow between the legs
- B. Place a pillow under the client's knees
- C. Place an abduction pillow between the client's legs
- D. Place a trochanter roll under the client's legs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to prevent hip dislocation. Placing an abduction pillow between the client's legs helps maintain proper alignment and prevents the hip from dislocating. This position aids in keeping the hip in a neutral or slightly outwardly rotated position, reducing the risk of dislocation. Placing the client supine with a pillow between the legs (Choice A) or using a trochanter roll (Choice D) may not provide the same level of abduction and support needed to prevent hip dislocation. Placing a pillow under the client's knees (Choice B) does not provide the necessary support to maintain proper hip alignment in this situation.
4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication will increase your potassium levels.
- B. You should take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- C. This medication will decrease your blood glucose levels.
- D. You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching for a client with a new prescription for furosemide is that the client should take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause gastrointestinal upset, so taking it with food can help reduce this side effect and improve medication tolerance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not increase potassium levels, decrease blood glucose levels, or require an increase in the intake of potassium-rich foods. Therefore, the most important teaching point for the client is to take furosemide with food.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.
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