ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. What is the primary action when caring for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?
- A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing
- B. Provide wound debridement
- C. Change the dressing daily
- D. Apply moist gauze to the ulcer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This type of dressing helps maintain a moist environment that is conducive to healing in stage 3 pressure ulcers. Providing wound debridement (choice B) is more suitable for higher stages of pressure ulcers where there is necrotic tissue. Changing the dressing daily (choice C) may be necessary but is not the primary action for a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Applying moist gauze (choice D) is not the recommended approach as it does not provide the same benefits as a hydrocolloid dressing.
2. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 90/min
- B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
- C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. What should the nurse report?
- A. Chest pain.
- B. Muscle spasms.
- C. Cool, moist skin.
- D. Incisional pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, postoperative chest pain is a critical finding that must be reported promptly. Chest pain after an arterial thrombectomy could indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not the priority assessments in this situation. Incisional pain is common after surgery and is not typically a cause for immediate concern unless it is severe and accompanied by other symptoms.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.
5. What is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer bronchodilators
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Administer corticosteroids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen. In respiratory distress, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen helps increase the oxygen levels in the blood, supporting respiratory function. While bronchodilators may be used in specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD, they are not the primary intervention for respiratory distress. IV fluids are not indicated as the initial treatment for respiratory distress unless there is an underlying cause such as dehydration. Corticosteroids may be used in certain respiratory conditions to reduce inflammation, but they are not the first-line intervention for acute respiratory distress.
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