what is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. This method is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients with kidney disease. Daily weight monitoring can detect even small changes in fluid balance, such as fluid retention or loss, which may not be evident through other methods. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance as it doesn't consider factors like insensible losses. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid retention but may not always be present or may be difficult to assess accurately. Checking urine output (choice D) is important but may not reflect the overall fluid balance status of the patient.

2. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection in clients receiving parenteral nutrition. Measuring the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours is important for clients on insulin therapy or with diabetes, but it is not directly related to TPN administration. Weighing the client weekly is essential for monitoring fluid status and nutritional progress, but it is not specific to TPN care. Administering TPN through a peripheral IV line is incorrect because TPN solutions are hypertonic and can cause phlebitis or thrombosis if administered through a peripheral line; a central venous access is typically used for TPN administration.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a complication of GERD?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematemesis. Hematemesis (vomiting blood) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and a serious complication of GERD. Melena (black, tarry stool) is also a sign of GI bleeding but is not as specific to GERD as hematemesis. Pallor may be present due to anemia from chronic blood loss, but it is not a direct complication of GERD. Steatorrhea is not typically associated with GERD; it is more indicative of malabsorption issues.

5. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

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