ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing hypoxia?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Provide humidified air
- D. Provide chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best intervention for a patient experiencing hypoxia is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels in the blood, addressing the underlying cause of hypoxia. Repositioning the patient, providing humidified air, and chest physiotherapy may be beneficial in certain situations but are not the primary interventions for hypoxia. Administering oxygen is crucial to quickly alleviate hypoxia and support the patient's respiratory function.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased oxygen saturation with exercise.
- B. Pursed-lip breathing with exertion.
- C. Productive cough with clear sputum.
- D. Clubbing of the fingers.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Productive cough with clear sputum.' Clients with COPD often have a chronic productive cough with thick, often purulent sputum. This sputum can be white, yellow, green, or clear. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxygen saturation may decrease with exertion in COPD due to impaired gas exchange. Pursed-lip breathing is used to control dyspnea, not directly related to increased saturation with exercise. Clubbing of the fingers is typically seen in conditions such as cyanotic heart disease or lung cancer.
3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Canned soup.
- B. Lean cuts of beef.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Baked chicken.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Canned soup. Canned soups are usually high in sodium, which can increase blood pressure and should be avoided by clients with hypertension. Lean cuts of beef, bananas, and baked chicken are healthier options for individuals with hypertension as they are lower in sodium and can be included in a balanced diet to manage blood pressure levels.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Serum potassium 5.4 mEq/L
- B. Flat T waves
- C. Elevated ST segments
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Flat T waves are a characteristic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes a decrease in serum potassium levels, leading to altered cardiac conduction. Flat T waves are associated with hypokalemia-induced cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated ST segments are typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Bradycardia is not a typical manifestation of hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia may occur due to potassium imbalances affecting the heart's electrical activity.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.
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