a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for ceftriaxone the nurse should identify which of the following findin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for ceftriaxone. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication to this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Penicillin allergy. Penicillin allergy is a contraindication for ceftriaxone because both medications are beta-lactam antibiotics. Seizure disorder (choice A), hypertension (choice B), and hyperlipidemia (choice D) are not contraindications for ceftriaxone and do not directly affect the use of this antibiotic.

2. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

3. A client who is taking phenytoin is being taught about contraceptive options. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Phenytoin can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so it is important to inform the client about this interaction. Using an additional form of contraception, such as a backup method, is recommended to ensure adequate protection against pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because it lacks specificity about the decrease in effectiveness of oral contraceptives caused by phenytoin. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests stopping phenytoin use while using oral contraceptives, which is not the appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as phenytoin is known to decrease, not increase, the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is 24 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F) is above the normal range and indicates a fever, which is a concerning finding postoperatively. Fever can be a sign of infection, so the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within expected parameters for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery and do not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 90/min, serosanguineous drainage in the surgical drain, and a urinary output of 60 mL/hr are all common postoperative findings that do not raise immediate concerns.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.

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