Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following precautions should the nurse implement?

• A. Place the client in a negative pressure room
• B. Wear an N95 respirator mask when entering the room
• C. Wear a gown and gloves when providing care to the client
• D. Place a face mask on the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct precaution to implement when caring for a client with Clostridium difficile infection is to wear a gown and gloves when providing care. Clostridium difficile is primarily spread through contact with feces, so wearing personal protective equipment like gowns and gloves is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection. Placing the client in a negative pressure room (Choice A) is not necessary for Clostridium difficile. While wearing an N95 respirator mask (Choice B) is important for airborne precautions, it is not required for Clostridium difficile. Placing a face mask on the client (Choice D) is not a standard precaution for preventing the spread of Clostridium difficile.

2. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being taught about the medication's adverse effects by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I should expect mild bruising around my elbows.''
• B. ''I should report a red rash to my provider.''
• C. ''I should stop taking this medication if I develop a cough.''
• D. ''I should expect black, tarry stools.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious adverse effect of warfarin that requires immediate medical attention. Option A is incorrect because while bruising is a common side effect of warfarin, it is not limited to the elbows. Option B is incorrect as a red rash is not a typical adverse effect of warfarin. Option C is also incorrect because developing a cough is not a reason to discontinue warfarin unless advised by a healthcare provider.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid crowded places to reduce my risk of infection.
• B. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.
• D. I will take this medication for 2 weeks and then stop.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I will avoid crowded places to reduce my risk of infection.' When taking prednisone, clients should avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choice B is incorrect because prednisone is usually taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice C is incorrect because clients should not stop taking prednisone abruptly, even if they experience nausea. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone should be tapered off gradually under healthcare provider guidance instead of being stopped abruptly after 2 weeks.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. INR 2.0
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. aPTT 60 seconds
• D. WBC count 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a gastric bypass. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 78/min
• B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• D. Serosanguineous wound drainage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a postoperative client, a urine output of 30 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it indicates oliguria, which may suggest dehydration or kidney impairment. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring renal function and overall fluid status. A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range for an adult. An oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable and indicates adequate oxygenation. Serosanguineous wound drainage is expected in the early postoperative period and is not a cause for immediate concern unless it becomes excessive or changes character.

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