Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

2. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath.
• B. A client who is postoperative and has abdominal distention.
• C. A client who is receiving IV fluids and has a temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F).
• D. A client who has cancer and has been receiving radiation therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.

3. While caring for a client receiving an opioid analgesic for pain management, which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Monitor the client's urinary output.
• B. Check the client's blood pressure.
• C. Assess the client for constipation.
• D. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioids, the priority assessment is the respiratory rate since opioids can lead to respiratory depression. Monitoring urinary output, blood pressure, and constipation are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which statement should the nurse make?

• A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
• B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
• C. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Dehydration causes gastroesophageal reflux.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement is B: 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.' Dehydration can lead to increased uterine irritability, potentially causing preterm contractions and labor. Choice A is incorrect as dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with fluids. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by a lack of fluids. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration does not directly cause gastroesophageal reflux.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Headache.
• D. Urinary retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to sunlight. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding to the provider so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent skin damage. Dry mouth, headache, and urinary retention are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and do not require immediate reporting to the provider in this scenario.

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