ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure of 138/84 mm Hg
- C. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
- D. INR of 2.0
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.
2. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 78/min.
- B. Vision changes.
- C. Respiratory rate of 16/min.
- D. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vision changes. Vision changes are a classic sign of digoxin toxicity and should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. A heart rate of 78/min, a respiratory rate of 16/min, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg are within normal ranges and are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, they would not be the priority findings to report in this situation.
3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
- B. This medication may cause your blood pressure to increase.
- C. This medication can cause you to retain fluids.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to take the medication with meals. This helps prevent gastrointestinal upset and improves medication tolerance. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as furosemide typically lowers blood pressure. Option C is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss rather than retention.
4. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Insert the catheter 7.5 cm (3 in) into the urethra.
- B. Insert the catheter until urine flow is established.
- C. Cleanse the catheter with sterile water before insertion.
- D. Insert the catheter 5 cm (2 in) into the urethra.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to insert the catheter until urine flow is established. This helps ensure proper placement and reduces the risk of trauma. Choice A (7.5 cm) and Choice D (5 cm) provide specific measurements that may not be appropriate for all individuals as catheter insertion depth can vary. Choice C is incorrect as catheters should be cleansed with an appropriate solution such as sterile saline, not sterile water.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation following an amniocentesis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Vomiting.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Epigastric pain.
- D. Contractions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following an amniocentesis at 33 weeks of gestation, the nurse should monitor the client for contractions. Contractions can indicate preterm labor, which requires immediate attention. Vomiting, hypertension, and epigastric pain are not typically associated with amniocentesis complications at this gestational age.
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