Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with or without food.
• B. Monitor for signs of hypokalemia.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Expect an increase in urination.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed furosemide is to expect an increase in urination. Furosemide is a diuretic that works by increasing urine production, so it is essential for the client to anticipate and understand this effect. Monitoring for signs of hypokalemia and increasing potassium-rich foods are not directly related to furosemide use. Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of furosemide, so monitoring for it is crucial. Increasing potassium-rich foods can help counteract potassium loss due to diuretic use. Taking furosemide with food is not required, as it can be taken with or without food.

2. The healthcare professional is assisting in the care of a client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which instruction should be reinforced to prevent complications?

• A. Elevate the affected leg using pillows.
• B. Perform leg exercises while sitting.
• C. Wear snug compression stockings.
• D. Avoid applying ice packs to injuries.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the affected leg using pillows is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps reduce swelling and promote venous return, thereby decreasing the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. This position aids in improving blood circulation and preventing blood clots from forming or worsening in the affected leg. Performing leg exercises while sitting might increase the risk of dislodging a blood clot. While snug compression stockings are beneficial, the primary focus should be on elevation. Avoiding ice packs on injuries is unrelated to DVT management.

3. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.

4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

• A. Take the aspirin on an empty stomach for better absorption.
• B. Stop taking the aspirin if you experience any stomach discomfort.
• C. Take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation.
• D. Take the aspirin only when you have chest pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation. This is crucial for clients with a history of coronary artery disease as it helps minimize gastrointestinal side effects like irritation and bleeding. Option A is incorrect because aspirin should not be taken on an empty stomach to prevent stomach upset. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing aspirin at the first sign of stomach discomfort can be harmful, and a healthcare provider should be consulted instead. Option D is incorrect because aspirin is often prescribed for prevention in cardiovascular conditions, not just for chest pain relief.

5. The client with a diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely by the nurse?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent adverse effects associated with high potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium (choice A) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum glucose (choice D) are also not the primary laboratory values to monitor when a client is prescribed spironolactone for heart failure.

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