ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with or without food.
- B. Monitor for signs of hypokalemia.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Expect an increase in urination.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed furosemide is to expect an increase in urination. Furosemide is a diuretic that works by increasing urine production, so it is essential for the client to anticipate and understand this effect. Monitoring for signs of hypokalemia and increasing potassium-rich foods are not directly related to furosemide use. Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of furosemide, so monitoring for it is crucial. Increasing potassium-rich foods can help counteract potassium loss due to diuretic use. Taking furosemide with food is not required, as it can be taken with or without food.
2. A client with a history of hypertension is being discharged on a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will use fresh herbs and spices instead of salt.
- B. I will avoid canned soups and processed foods.
- C. I can eat as much bacon and sausage as I want because they taste good.
- D. I will read food labels to check for sodium content.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because bacon and sausage are high in sodium, which contradicts the low-sodium diet requirement. Consuming them freely would contribute to increased sodium intake, which is not suitable for managing hypertension. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate understanding and actions for a low-sodium diet, such as using alternatives to salt, avoiding processed foods, and checking food labels for sodium content.
3. The client is starting therapy with digoxin (Lanoxin). What instruction should the nurse reinforce about the medication?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Avoid dairy products.
- C. Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.
- D. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.' When a client is taking digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of toxicity, such as yellow or blurred vision, as these can indicate an adverse reaction. Reporting these visual disturbances promptly to the healthcare provider is important for further evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking digoxin with meals, avoiding dairy products, or increasing potassium-rich foods are not specific instructions related to monitoring for adverse effects of digoxin therapy.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of theophylline toxicity?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Nausea
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nausea is an early sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should closely monitor the client for this symptom as it can progress to more severe toxicity. Nausea can be a warning sign to prevent further complications and adjust the dosage as necessary. Drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of theophylline but not a specific sign of toxicity. Bradycardia (choice B) and constipation (choice D) are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is C.
5. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?
- A. Tall, peaked T waves
- B. ST-segment depression
- C. Prolonged P-R interval
- D. Widening of the QRS complex
Correct answer: B
Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access