ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with or without food.
- B. Monitor for signs of hypokalemia.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Expect an increase in urination.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed furosemide is to expect an increase in urination. Furosemide is a diuretic that works by increasing urine production, so it is essential for the client to anticipate and understand this effect. Monitoring for signs of hypokalemia and increasing potassium-rich foods are not directly related to furosemide use. Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of furosemide, so monitoring for it is crucial. Increasing potassium-rich foods can help counteract potassium loss due to diuretic use. Taking furosemide with food is not required, as it can be taken with or without food.
2. The client is scheduled to undergo a treadmill stress test. Which instruction should the client be reinforced with?
- A. Eat a light meal before the test.
- B. Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.
- C. Avoid all physical activity the morning of the test.
- D. Take prescribed medications right before the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.' Wearing comfortable shoes and clothing is crucial for the client undergoing a treadmill stress test to ensure they can complete the test without discomfort. The right attire will help the client move freely and reduce the risk of any hindrance during the test, which requires physical activity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A light meal before the test may be recommended, but it's not as crucial as wearing suitable attire. Avoiding physical activity the morning of the test is not necessary as the test requires physical activity. Taking prescribed medications right before the test instructions should be followed as per the healthcare provider's advice and not as a general rule for all clients undergoing the test.
3. The client is being ambulated due to activity intolerance caused by bacterial endocarditis. How can the nurse determine that the client is best tolerating ambulation?
- A. Mild dyspnea after walking 10 feet
- B. Minimal chest pain rated 1 on a 1-to-10 pain scale
- C. Pulse rate that increases from 68 to 94 beats per minute
- D. Blood pressure that increases from 114/82 to 118/86 mm Hg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A slight increase in blood pressure without significant symptoms indicates that the client is tolerating the activity. In this scenario, a mild increase in blood pressure without other symptoms is a positive sign of tolerance to ambulation despite the underlying condition of bacterial endocarditis. Choices A, B, and C are not the best indicators of tolerance to ambulation in this case. Mild dyspnea after walking a short distance, minimal chest pain, and an increase in pulse rate are common signs that the activity might not be well-tolerated by the client with a history of bacterial endocarditis.
4. The client with a history of angina pectoris is being discharged after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks.
- B. I will call the doctor if I develop a fever or drainage from my incisions.
- C. I will take my pain medication before doing any activities that might cause discomfort.
- D. I can resume my normal activities, including driving, as soon as I feel like it.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because after CABG surgery, patients need to follow specific guidelines for resuming activities, and driving is typically restricted for a certain period to ensure safety and proper recovery. Resuming normal activities too soon, including driving, can pose risks to the client's health and safety. It is essential to emphasize to the client the importance of following the healthcare provider's recommendations regarding activity restrictions post-surgery to prevent complications and promote optimal recovery. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that align with post-CABG discharge instructions, emphasizing the importance of avoiding heavy lifting, monitoring for signs of infection, and managing pain effectively.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to ensure correct use?
- A. Inhale deeply and slowly after activating the MDI.
- B. Hold the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication.
- C. Rinse the mouth immediately after using the MDI.
- D. Exhale fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Inhaling deeply and slowly after activating the MDI is the correct instruction to ensure effective delivery of the medication to the lungs. This technique helps the medication reach the lower airways where it can be most beneficial in managing COPD symptoms. Inhaling too quickly or not deeply enough may result in improper drug delivery and reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) may not be necessary and could cause discomfort without additional benefits. Rinsing the mouth immediately after using the MDI (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Exhaling fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth (Choice D) is not ideal as it may result in inadequate medication delivery to the lungs.
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