a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed furosemide is to expect an increase in urination. Furosemide is a diuretic that works by increasing urine production, so it is essential for the client to anticipate and understand this effect. Monitoring for signs of hypokalemia and increasing potassium-rich foods are not directly related to furosemide use. Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of furosemide, so monitoring for it is crucial. Increasing potassium-rich foods can help counteract potassium loss due to diuretic use. Taking furosemide with food is not required, as it can be taken with or without food.

2. A client has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight gain is a common side effect of prednisone. The nurse should educate the client about the possibility of weight gain and the need to monitor it closely during treatment with prednisone. Choice B is incorrect because increasing vitamin K intake is not specifically related to prednisone therapy. Choice C is incorrect as prednisone is more likely to cause fluid retention rather than increased urinary output. Choice D is incorrect as dark, tarry stools are not a common side effect of prednisone.

3. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory test monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, particularly with heparin. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the therapeutic range is maintained to prevent clot formation and excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a complete blood count (CBC) assesses overall health, serum electrolytes evaluate the body's electrolyte balance, and liver function tests assess liver health, none of which directly evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy for DVT.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypertension who is receiving a beta blocker. The provider should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Beta blockers are medications that can cause bradycardia by slowing down the heart rate. It is essential to monitor for this side effect in clients receiving beta blockers, as it can lead to serious complications such as decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because beta blockers are not expected to cause tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), or hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report a persistent dry cough. ACE inhibitors can cause a common side effect of a persistent dry cough, which should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Option A is incorrect because the timing of ACE inhibitor administration is usually not specified to be at bedtime. Option C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can lead to hyperkalemia when taking ACE inhibitors. Option D is incorrect because ACE inhibitors can be taken with or without food.

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