Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning measures to decrease the incidence of chest pain for a client with angina pectoris. What intervention should the nurse do to effectively accomplish this goal?

• A. Provide a quiet and low-stimulus environment.
• B. Encourage the family to visit very frequently.
• C. Encourage the client to call friends and relatives each day.
• D. Recommend that the client watch TV as a constant diversion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a quiet and low-stimulus environment. A calm and quiet environment can help reduce stress, which is beneficial in preventing the occurrence of chest pain in clients with angina. Choice B is incorrect because excessive or frequent visitations may lead to increased stress and agitation for the client. Choice C is incorrect as it may not always contribute to a calm environment and could potentially increase the client's stress levels. Choice D is inappropriate as watching TV constantly may not promote a quiet and low-stimulus environment, which is essential in managing angina pectoris.

2. The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client with coronary artery disease who is prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The nurse should advise the client to choose which food item?

• A. Eggs and bacon
• B. Oatmeal with fresh fruit
• C. Cream of chicken soup
• D. Grilled cheese sandwich

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is a suitable choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet as it is low in cholesterol and provides heart-healthy benefits. Eggs and bacon, cream of chicken soup, and grilled cheese sandwich are higher in cholesterol and may not be as heart-healthy for this client. Eggs and bacon are high in cholesterol, cream of chicken soup may contain saturated fats, and a grilled cheese sandwich typically contains high amounts of fat and cholesterol, making them less suitable choices for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Frequent urination
• B. Dry cough
• C. Tremors
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Dizziness is a sign of hypotension, a potential adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for hypertension. Hypotension is a serious side effect that can lead to complications such as falls and injuries. Reporting dizziness promptly is crucial to prevent any harm to the client. Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with enalapril use and are less concerning compared to the potential implications of hypotension indicated by dizziness.

4. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

5. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?

• A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.

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