Nursing Elites

1. After returning the client to bed following a cardiac catheterization procedure with the left femoral vessel as the access site, the nurse places a sign above the bed instructing the client to remain on bed rest and in which position?

• A. In semi-Fowler's position
• B. With the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
• C. With the head of the bed elevated no more than 15 degrees
• D. With the foot of the bed elevated as much as tolerated by the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After cardiac catheterization via the femoral vessel, it is crucial to keep the head of the bed elevated no more than 15 degrees to prevent bleeding at the access site. This position helps maintain pressure on the femoral artery, reducing the risk of bleeding and complications post-procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the necessary pressure on the femoral artery to prevent bleeding, which is essential after a cardiac catheterization procedure with a femoral access site.

2. The healthcare professional is assisting in the care of a client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which instruction should be reinforced to prevent complications?

• A. Elevate the affected leg using pillows.
• B. Perform leg exercises while sitting.
• C. Wear snug compression stockings.
• D. Avoid applying ice packs to injuries.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the affected leg using pillows is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps reduce swelling and promote venous return, thereby decreasing the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. This position aids in improving blood circulation and preventing blood clots from forming or worsening in the affected leg. Performing leg exercises while sitting might increase the risk of dislodging a blood clot. While snug compression stockings are beneficial, the primary focus should be on elevation. Avoiding ice packs on injuries is unrelated to DVT management.

3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for spironolactone, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Monitor for signs of hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of hyperkalemia when taking spironolactone since it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Advising the client to increase potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would be incorrect as it can further elevate potassium levels, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Though taking the medication with food (Choice C) can help reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the most critical instruction when initiating spironolactone therapy.

4. The client is starting therapy with digoxin (Lanoxin). What instruction should the nurse reinforce about the medication?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Avoid dairy products.
• C. Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.
• D. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.' When a client is taking digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of toxicity, such as yellow or blurred vision, as these can indicate an adverse reaction. Reporting these visual disturbances promptly to the healthcare provider is important for further evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking digoxin with meals, avoiding dairy products, or increasing potassium-rich foods are not specific instructions related to monitoring for adverse effects of digoxin therapy.

5. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.

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