Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is taking hydrocodone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Constipation
• B. Sedation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Respiratory depression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Respiratory depression. Hydrocodone is an opioid medication that can cause respiratory depression, a serious side effect that should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider. Constipation, sedation, and dry mouth are common side effects of hydrocodone but are not as concerning as respiratory depression. Constipation can be managed with lifestyle modifications and medications, sedation may improve with time or dosage adjustments, and dry mouth is a common and usually benign side effect.

2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Avoid using a soft toothbrush.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding.
• C. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
• D. Take the medication with food.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any signs of bleeding when taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is essential to monitor for any signs of abnormal bleeding and report them promptly for appropriate management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to avoid using a soft toothbrush is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Increasing the intake of leafy green vegetables is not recommended as they contain vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. Taking warfarin with food can be inconsistent and may not result in optimal absorption.

3. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

4. The client with a history of angina pectoris is being discharged after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks.
• B. I will call the doctor if I develop a fever or drainage from my incisions.
• C. I will take my pain medication before doing any activities that might cause discomfort.
• D. I can resume my normal activities, including driving, as soon as I feel like it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because after CABG surgery, patients need to follow specific guidelines for resuming activities, and driving is typically restricted for a certain period to ensure safety and proper recovery. Resuming normal activities too soon, including driving, can pose risks to the client's health and safety. It is essential to emphasize to the client the importance of following the healthcare provider's recommendations regarding activity restrictions post-surgery to prevent complications and promote optimal recovery. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that align with post-CABG discharge instructions, emphasizing the importance of avoiding heavy lifting, monitoring for signs of infection, and managing pain effectively.

5. The client is receiving intravenous heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Which medication should the nurse ensure is readily available?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, used to reverse its anticoagulant effects. It should be readily available in case of bleeding complications, as it can rapidly neutralize the effects of heparin and prevent excessive bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin (Choice B). Calcium gluconate is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not indicated for heparin therapy (Choice C). Magnesium sulfate is used for conditions like preeclampsia and eclampsia, not for reversing heparin effects (Choice D).

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