Nursing Elites

1. A 24-year-old man seeks medical attention for complaints of claudication in the arch of the foot. The nurse also notes superficial thrombophlebitis of the lower leg. What should the nurse check the client for next?

• A. Smoking history
• B. Recent exposure to allergens
• C. History of recent insect bites
• D. Familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the nurse should check the client's smoking history next. Smoking is a significant risk factor for peripheral vascular disease, leading to the development of thrombophlebitis and claudication. It is important to assess this risk factor as it can significantly impact the client's vascular health and the progression of their current symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client. Recent exposure to allergens or insect bites would typically present with different symptoms, and familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease is not the immediate concern in this case.

2. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?

• A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.

3. The nurse is informed during shift report that a client is experiencing occasional ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results, recalling that which electrolyte imbalance could be responsible for this development?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypochloremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart and lead to ventricular dysrhythmias. Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining the heart's rhythm, and a deficiency can result in dangerous heart rhythm abnormalities. Hypernatremia (Choice B), which is high sodium levels, does not directly impact heart rhythm. Hypochloremia (Choice C), which is low chloride levels, is not typically associated with ventricular dysrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice D), which is high calcium levels, is not a common cause of ventricular dysrhythmias.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.

5. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to alarm at the nurse's station. The nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Call a code blue.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Check the client's status and lead placement.
• D. Press the recorder button on the ECG console.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the client's status and lead placement. This step is crucial to ensure that the alarm is not triggered by a simple issue such as lead displacement. Calling a code blue (choice A) is premature without assessing the client first. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) can be done after ruling out basic causes for the alarm. Pressing the recorder button (choice D) is not as urgent as checking the client's status and lead placement in this scenario.

Similar Questions