the nurse notes that a client with a history of left sided heart failure exhibits increasing shortness of breath and frothy sputum what is the priorit
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Assessment A

1. The client with a history of left-sided heart failure is exhibiting increasing shortness of breath and frothy sputum. What is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shortness of breath and frothy sputum are indicative of pulmonary edema, a serious condition that requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen is the priority action to support the client's respiratory function and prevent further deterioration. Oxygen therapy helps increase the oxygen levels in the blood, alleviate respiratory distress, and support vital organ function. Prompt intervention with oxygen can help stabilize the client while further assessments and treatments are initiated. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may worsen the client's condition by increasing respiratory effort. Placing the client in a supine position can further compromise breathing in a client with pulmonary edema. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but not the priority when the client's respiratory status is deteriorating.

2. The client has angina pectoris and is prescribed nitroglycerin patches. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to the client is to apply the nitroglycerin patch to a different site each time to prevent skin irritation. Rotating the application site is crucial to prevent skin irritation and ensure consistent absorption of the medication. Applying the patch to the same site can lead to skin irritation and decreased effectiveness. Removing the patch before going to bed is not necessary, as the patch can typically be worn for a specific duration. Cutting the patch in half if experiencing headaches is not recommended and can alter the dose of the medication.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.

4. A client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain while ambulating in the corridor. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a history of angina pectoris experiences chest pain while ambulating, the priority action for the nurse is to assist the client to sit or lie down. This helps reduce the demand on the heart by decreasing physical exertion. Checking vital signs, administering medication, or applying oxygen can follow once the client is in a more comfortable position. Checking vital signs (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate discomfort by positioning the client comfortably takes precedence. Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (Choice C) is appropriate but should come after ensuring the client's comfort. Applying nasal oxygen (Choice D) can be beneficial, but it should not be the first action; assisting the client to sit or lie down is the initial priority.

5. A client has a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking verapamil. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia, making it crucial to monitor the heart rate regularly to detect any changes promptly. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically related to verapamil administration. Choice C, avoiding grapefruit juice, is more relevant to medications metabolized by CYP3A4 enzymes, not verapamil. Choice D, taking the medication with food, is not a specific instruction for verapamil, as it can be taken with or without food.

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