Nursing Elites

1. The client with a history of left-sided heart failure is exhibiting increasing shortness of breath and frothy sputum. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Encourage coughing and deep breathing
• C. Place the client in a supine position
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shortness of breath and frothy sputum are indicative of pulmonary edema, a serious condition that requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen is the priority action to support the client's respiratory function and prevent further deterioration. Oxygen therapy helps increase the oxygen levels in the blood, alleviate respiratory distress, and support vital organ function. Prompt intervention with oxygen can help stabilize the client while further assessments and treatments are initiated. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may worsen the client's condition by increasing respiratory effort. Placing the client in a supine position can further compromise breathing in a client with pulmonary edema. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but not the priority when the client's respiratory status is deteriorating.

2. A healthcare provider is assisting in the care of a client who is having central venous pressure (CVP) measurements taken. The healthcare provider should assist by placing the bed in which position for the reading?

• A. Flat
• B. Semi-Fowler's
• C. Trendelenburg
• D. Reverse Trendelenburg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Central venous pressure (CVP) measurements are most accurate when the client is lying flat, as this allows for a consistent baseline. Placing the bed flat ensures that the hydrostatic pressure within the vena cava is not affected by the client's position, providing a more precise reading. Choice B (Semi-Fowler's) elevates the head of the bed at a 30-45 degree angle, which could affect the accuracy of CVP readings. Choices C (Trendelenburg) and D (Reverse Trendelenburg) involve extreme positions that would not be suitable for obtaining accurate CVP measurements.

3. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?

• A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. What instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Report a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
• D. Avoid taking the medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. This symptom can indicate a potential issue with the medication that may require adjustment or discontinuation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication at bedtime or with meals is not a specific instruction for ACE inhibitors. Increasing potassium-rich foods in the diet is not directly related to ACE inhibitor therapy and may not be suitable for all patients.

5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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