Nursing Elites

1. The client with a history of left-sided heart failure is exhibiting increasing shortness of breath and frothy sputum. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Encourage coughing and deep breathing
• C. Place the client in a supine position
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shortness of breath and frothy sputum are indicative of pulmonary edema, a serious condition that requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen is the priority action to support the client's respiratory function and prevent further deterioration. Oxygen therapy helps increase the oxygen levels in the blood, alleviate respiratory distress, and support vital organ function. Prompt intervention with oxygen can help stabilize the client while further assessments and treatments are initiated. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may worsen the client's condition by increasing respiratory effort. Placing the client in a supine position can further compromise breathing in a client with pulmonary edema. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but not the priority when the client's respiratory status is deteriorating.

2. The healthcare provider assesses a client who has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for cardiac disease. Which electrocardiographic change would be a concern for a client taking a diuretic?

• A. Tall, spiked T waves
• B. A prolonged QT interval
• C. A widening QRS complex
• D. Presence of a U wave

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of a U wave is often associated with hypokalemia, a possible side effect of diuretic therapy like furosemide. Hypokalemia can lead to U wave formation on an electrocardiogram, making the presence of U waves a concerning finding in clients taking diuretics. Tall, spiked T waves are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged QT interval is more commonly associated with conditions like Long QT syndrome or certain medications, not specifically with diuretics. A widening QRS complex is usually seen in conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks, rather than being directly related to diuretic use.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Increased urination
• B. Tremors
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors. Tremors are a sign of lithium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Increased urination is a common side effect of lithium but not an urgent concern requiring immediate reporting. Weight gain is also a common side effect of lithium but does not indicate toxicity. Blurred vision is not typically associated with lithium toxicity; therefore, it is not the priority finding to report.

4. A client has a new prescription for amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor blood pressure daily.
• C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed amlodipine, it is essential to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Amlodipine is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it stays within the desired range to prevent complications associated with low blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because amlodipine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake is not a specific instruction related to amlodipine. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice interactions are not typically a concern with amlodipine.

5. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should prepare the client for which immediate diagnostic test?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Coronary angiography

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the most immediate and essential test to diagnose a myocardial infarction (MI) and assess the extent of heart damage. An ECG can quickly identify changes in the heart's electrical activity, allowing prompt initiation of appropriate interventions. A chest x-ray (Choice A) may show other conditions affecting the heart, but it is not the immediate test of choice for diagnosing an MI. An echocardiogram (Choice C) and coronary angiography (Choice D) are valuable in further assessing cardiac function and anatomy post-MI but are not the first-line diagnostic tests due to their time-consuming nature compared to an ECG.

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