a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel which of the following laboratory results should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. What laboratory result should be monitored by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, monitoring the platelet count is essential. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in assessing the risk of thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, creatinine, or blood glucose is not directly related to the action or side effects of clopidogrel, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

2. When teaching a client about the adverse effects of simvastatin, which of the following findings should be included as an adverse effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle pain should be included as an adverse effect when teaching a client about simvastatin. It can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a severe side effect associated with statins like simvastatin that involves muscle breakdown. Monitoring for muscle pain is crucial to prevent serious complications and ensure timely intervention. Tinnitus, diarrhea, and facial flushing are not typically associated with simvastatin use and are less common adverse effects compared to muscle pain.

3. A client is admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) and reports dyspnea at rest. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority intervention for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps improve lung expansion and reduces the workload on the heart, aiding in respiratory effort and cardiac function. This intervention is crucial in enhancing oxygenation and optimizing cardiac output in individuals with CAD presenting with dyspnea. Administering oxygen (Choice B) is important but elevating the head of the bed takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's respiratory distress. Continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) and applying a nasal cannula (Choice D) are relevant interventions but not the priority when a client with CAD reports dyspnea at rest.

4. In monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are crucial laboratory values to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and that the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is appropriate. Monitoring aPTT, platelet count, or ESR is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in these cases.

5. The nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client to prevent bleeding complications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent bleeding complications in a client on anticoagulant therapy is to use a soft-bristle toothbrush and an electric razor. These implements help reduce the risk of bleeding by being gentle on the skin and reducing the chances of cuts or abrasions that could lead to bleeding in individuals on anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with the action of anticoagulants. Choice C is incorrect as aspirin is a blood thinner and can increase the risk of bleeding when combined with anticoagulant therapy. Choice D is incorrect as ice packs can help reduce bleeding and swelling in injuries, but in a client on anticoagulant therapy, it is important to avoid potential trauma to the skin that could lead to bleeding.

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