a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel which of the following laboratory results should the nurse monitor
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ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. What laboratory result should be monitored by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, monitoring the platelet count is essential. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in assessing the risk of thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, creatinine, or blood glucose is not directly related to the action or side effects of clopidogrel, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hypotension, particularly following the initial dose or dosage escalation. This effect is due to the medication's mechanism of action in dilating blood vessels, which can result in lowered blood pressure. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting in clients taking enalapril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, tachycardia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects.

3. The client is reinforcing teaching for peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Crossing the legs can further impede blood flow in clients with PAD, worsening symptoms. Avoiding leg crossing helps maintain adequate blood flow and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral artery disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because elevating the legs, wearing tight compression stockings, and applying heat can exacerbate symptoms in PAD by restricting blood flow or causing potential harm.

4. A client is receiving morphine for pain. Which of the following assessments is the priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate. Monitoring the respiratory rate is the priority assessment for a client receiving morphine due to the risk of respiratory depression. Morphine is a potent opioid that can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect that can be life-threatening. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression early and intervene promptly. Assessing urine output is important but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory depression with morphine. Pupil reaction and bowel sounds are also important assessments but do not take precedence over monitoring the respiratory rate when a client is on morphine.

5. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be swallowed; they must dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Choice A is correct as nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original glass container to prevent degradation. Choice B is correct as sitting or lying down when taking a nitroglycerin tablet helps prevent dizziness or fainting due to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Choice C is correct as taking a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes for a maximum of 3 tablets is the correct protocol for managing angina symptoms.

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