ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. What laboratory result should be monitored by the nurse?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Creatinine
- C. Blood glucose
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, monitoring the platelet count is essential. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in assessing the risk of thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, creatinine, or blood glucose is not directly related to the action or side effects of clopidogrel, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.
2. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for any signs of slowing down, as it can indicate toxicity and potentially lead to serious complications. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and insomnia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypertension is more commonly associated with other conditions or medications, hyperglycemia can be seen in conditions like diabetes or certain medications, and insomnia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity.
3. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.
4. A client has a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor your heart rate daily.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- D. Take the medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking verapamil. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia, making it crucial to monitor the heart rate regularly to detect any changes promptly. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically related to verapamil administration. Choice C, avoiding grapefruit juice, is more relevant to medications metabolized by CYP3A4 enzymes, not verapamil. Choice D, taking the medication with food, is not a specific instruction for verapamil, as it can be taken with or without food.
5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). The nurse should teach the client about which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Muscle pain
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle pain is a common side effect of statins like atorvastatin. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect, as it can indicate a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis, which requires immediate medical attention. Dry mouth, drowsiness, and diarrhea are not typically associated with atorvastatin use.
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