ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. What laboratory result should be monitored by the nurse?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Creatinine
- C. Blood glucose
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, monitoring the platelet count is essential. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in assessing the risk of thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, creatinine, or blood glucose is not directly related to the action or side effects of clopidogrel, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.
2. A client has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use the inhaler every 4 hours around the clock.
- B. Shake the inhaler well before use.
- C. Rinse your mouth with water after each use.
- D. Use the inhaler while lying down.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use is crucial as it helps ensure proper mixing of the medication, which is essential for effective delivery of the drug to the lungs. This step is important for optimal therapeutic effects of albuterol inhalation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Using the inhaler every 4 hours around the clock without specifying a maximum number of doses can lead to overuse. Rinsing the mouth with water after each use is typically advised for inhaled corticosteroids to reduce the risk of oral thrush, not for albuterol. Using the inhaler while lying down is not recommended as it may lead to improper medication delivery to the lungs.
3. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.
4. A client is diagnosed with thrombophlebitis. The nurse should tell the client that which prescription is indicated?
- A. Bed rest, with bathroom privileges only
- B. Bed rest, keeping the affected extremity flat
- C. Bed rest, with elevation of the affected extremity
- D. Bed rest, with the affected extremity in a dependent position
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bed rest, with elevation of the affected extremity. Elevating the affected extremity is crucial in managing thrombophlebitis as it helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return. By elevating the affected extremity, the gravitational force assists in venous blood flow back to the heart, thereby reducing the risk of complications associated with thrombophlebitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the need for elevation, which is specifically beneficial in the management of thrombophlebitis.
5. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid consuming dairy products.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Increase your intake of folic acid.
- D. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increasing folic acid intake is crucial when taking methotrexate because the medication can lead to folic acid deficiency. Folic acid supplementation helps counteract this deficiency and reduces the risk of adverse effects associated with methotrexate therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding dairy products is not specifically necessary for methotrexate therapy. Methotrexate is usually taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to methotrexate use.
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