a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel which of the following laboratory results should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. What laboratory result should be monitored by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, monitoring the platelet count is essential. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in assessing the risk of thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, creatinine, or blood glucose is not directly related to the action or side effects of clopidogrel, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a decline in the client's condition and the need for adjustments in their medication regimen. Therefore, the healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the client's Parkinson's disease or the medication levodopa/carbidopa. Dry mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including anticholinergics, but not specifically levodopa/carbidopa. Urinary retention and dizziness are also not typically associated with levodopa/carbidopa use for Parkinson's disease.

3. The client with myocardial infarction should reduce intake of saturated fat and cholesterol. Which food items from the dietary menu would assist the nurse in helping the client comply with diet therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Option C, which includes baked haddock, steamed broccoli, herbed rice, and sliced strawberries, is the most appropriate choice for a client with myocardial infarction looking to reduce saturated fat and cholesterol intake. This meal is low in saturated fats and cholesterol, making it a heart-healthy option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for such clients. Choices A, B, and D contain foods high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which are not suitable for a client with myocardial infarction trying to adhere to a diet therapy aimed at reducing these components.

4. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their blood pressure regularly when taking lisinopril. Lisinopril is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure is crucial to ensure it stays within a safe range. This monitoring helps in early detection of any potential issues related to low blood pressure, allowing for timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking lisinopril with food, increasing potassium-rich foods intake, and avoiding grapefruit juice are not specific instructions related to the safe and effective use of lisinopril.

5. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

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