Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing digoxin toxicity?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradycardia is a hallmark sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart conditions, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia. Bradycardia occurs due to the drug's effect on slowing down the heart rate excessively. Constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Blurred vision (Choice B) is more commonly linked to visual disturbances caused by digoxin, but it is not a defining sign of toxicity. Dry cough (Choice D) is not a recognized symptom of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize the early signs of digoxin toxicity to prevent serious complications and provide appropriate interventions promptly.

2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

3. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should prepare the client for which immediate diagnostic test?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Coronary angiography

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the most immediate and essential test to diagnose a myocardial infarction (MI) and assess the extent of heart damage. An ECG can quickly identify changes in the heart's electrical activity, allowing prompt initiation of appropriate interventions. A chest x-ray (Choice A) may show other conditions affecting the heart, but it is not the immediate test of choice for diagnosing an MI. An echocardiogram (Choice C) and coronary angiography (Choice D) are valuable in further assessing cardiac function and anatomy post-MI but are not the first-line diagnostic tests due to their time-consuming nature compared to an ECG.

4. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor heart rate daily.
• C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor heart rate daily. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can lead to bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate daily is essential to detect any abnormal changes promptly, allowing for timely medical intervention if necessary. Choice A is incorrect because atenolol can be taken with or without food. Choice C is irrelevant as atenolol does not interact with potassium-rich foods. Choice D is incorrect as atenolol is usually taken in the morning to help manage blood pressure throughout the day.

5. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - Dry cough. Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. This adverse reaction can be bothersome to the client and may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Weight gain, hypokalemia, and increased appetite are not typically associated with lisinopril and would not be as concerning as a dry cough when assessing for adverse effects.

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