the nurse determines that a client with coronary artery disease cad understands disease management if the client makes which statement
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LPN Pharmacology

1. Which statement indicates that a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) understands disease management?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because regular physical activity, such as walking for half an hour daily, is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease (CAD) and promoting heart health. Walking helps improve circulation, reduce cholesterol levels, and maintain a healthy weight, all of which are crucial for managing CAD. Choice B is incorrect because diet also plays a significant role in CAD management, not just exercise. Choice C is incorrect because weight management is essential in controlling CAD risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because family history of high cholesterol can increase the risk of CAD, making it relevant for disease management.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for spironolactone, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of hyperkalemia when taking spironolactone since it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Advising the client to increase potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would be incorrect as it can further elevate potassium levels, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Though taking the medication with food (Choice C) can help reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the most critical instruction when initiating spironolactone therapy.

3. When assessing a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important laboratory value to monitor regularly in clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is glucose. TPN solutions contain high concentrations of glucose, which can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to detect and prevent hyperglycemia, a common complication associated with TPN administration. Albumin (Choice A) levels are not typically affected by TPN administration. Calcium (Choice B) and alkaline phosphatase (Choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN and are not the primary values to monitor in TPN therapy.

4. The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has been taking carbamazepine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of carbamazepine. Leukopenia can increase the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count, which is important to report to the provider for further evaluation and management. Platelet count within normal range (choice B), hemoglobin level within normal range (choice C), and serum potassium level within normal range (choice D) are not directly associated with carbamazepine use and do not require immediate reporting as they do not indicate a serious adverse effect.

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