Nursing Elites

1. A client being seen in the emergency department for complaints of chest pain confides in the nurse about regular use of cocaine as a recreational drug. The nurse takes which important action in delivering holistic nursing care to this client?

• A. Reports the client to the police for illegal drug use
• B. Explains to the client the damage that cocaine does to the heart
• C. Tells the client it is imperative to stop before myocardial infarction occurs
• D. Teaches about the effects of cocaine on the heart and offers a referral for further help

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize educating the client about the effects of cocaine on the heart and provide a referral for further help. This approach is crucial in addressing the root cause of the client's health issues and supporting them in making informed decisions about their health. Reporting the client to the police is not appropriate in this situation as the focus should be on the client's health and well-being. Simply explaining the damage without offering solutions may not effectively address the client's needs or promote holistic care. Telling the client to stop without providing support or education may not be as effective as teaching about the effects of cocaine and offering help for cessation. Therefore, educating about the effects and providing a referral for further assistance is the best course of action for holistic nursing care.

2. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

3. A client with a new prescription for simvastatin is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. 'I should take this medication in the evening.'
• B. 'I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.'
• C. 'I should expect my urine to be red-orange while taking this medication.'
• D. 'I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking simvastatin in the evening is recommended because cholesterol synthesis increases at night. This timing maximizes the effectiveness of the medication in lowering cholesterol levels. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice should be avoided with certain statins, but simvastatin is not significantly affected by grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect as red-orange urine is not an expected side effect of simvastatin. Choice D is incorrect because simvastatin is typically prescribed for managing cholesterol levels and may not need to be taken for the rest of the client's life.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.

5. The client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) for heart failure. Which symptom would indicate digoxin toxicity?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Yellow or blurred vision
• C. Increased urination
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Yellow or blurred vision can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. These visual disturbances are concerning as they indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Recognizing this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications. Increased appetite, increased urination, and diarrhea are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, option B is the correct choice in this scenario.

Similar Questions