Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is on a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in a client with DVT, the nurse should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test helps ensure that the dose of heparin is within the therapeutic range, which is essential for preventing clot formation or excessive bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in managing patients on heparin therapy to maintain the delicate balance between preventing thrombosis and avoiding hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more indicative of warfarin therapy effectiveness, not heparin. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and function, not the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.

2. A client is receiving morphine for pain. Which of the following assessments is the priority?

• A. Urine output
• B. Pupil reaction
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate. Monitoring the respiratory rate is the priority assessment for a client receiving morphine due to the risk of respiratory depression. Morphine is a potent opioid that can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect that can be life-threatening. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression early and intervene promptly. Assessing urine output is important but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory depression with morphine. Pupil reaction and bowel sounds are also important assessments but do not take precedence over monitoring the respiratory rate when a client is on morphine.

3. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of angina pectoris who is receiving nitroglycerin patches. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
• B. Remove the patch at night to prevent tolerance.
• C. Use more than one patch if chest pain occurs.
• D. Shower with caution while wearing the patch.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Removing the nitroglycerin patch at night is crucial to prevent the development of tolerance. Tolerance can occur when the body becomes accustomed to a constant level of the medication, reducing its effectiveness. By removing the patch at night, the client experiences a drug-free period, which helps prevent tolerance and maintains the effectiveness of the nitroglycerin for angina relief. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to a different site each time helps prevent skin irritation, using more than one patch is not recommended unless instructed by the healthcare provider, and showering with caution is important to prevent dislodging the patch, but it is not the most critical instruction to prevent tolerance development.

4. The client with a history of angina pectoris is being discharged after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks.
• B. I will call the doctor if I develop a fever or drainage from my incisions.
• C. I will take my pain medication before doing any activities that might cause discomfort.
• D. I can resume my normal activities, including driving, as soon as I feel like it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because after CABG surgery, patients need to follow specific guidelines for resuming activities, and driving is typically restricted for a certain period to ensure safety and proper recovery. Resuming normal activities too soon, including driving, can pose risks to the client's health and safety. It is essential to emphasize to the client the importance of following the healthcare provider's recommendations regarding activity restrictions post-surgery to prevent complications and promote optimal recovery. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that align with post-CABG discharge instructions, emphasizing the importance of avoiding heavy lifting, monitoring for signs of infection, and managing pain effectively.

5. A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the abdomen. In what position should the nurse immediately place the client to promote maintenance of the client's blood pressure above a systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg?

• A. Place the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position to promote cerebral blood flow.
• B. Turn the client prone to apply pressure on the abdominal wound to help staunch the bleeding.
• C. Maintain the client in a supine position to reduce diaphragmatic pressure and visualize the wound.
• D. Put the client on the right side to apply pressure to the liver and spleen to stop hemorrhaging.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with profuse bleeding from a gunshot wound to the abdomen, maintaining the client in a supine position is essential to manage blood pressure. This position helps in reducing diaphragmatic pressure and allows for proper visualization of the wound, aiding in prompt assessment and intervention to control the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition. Placing the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position (Choice A) could worsen the bleeding by increasing intrathoracic pressure and venous return, potentially leading to further hemorrhage. Turning the client prone (Choice B) may not be feasible in this situation and can delay essential interventions. Placing the client on the right side (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to manage the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition.

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