ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to prevent the complication of pulmonary embolism?
- A. Encourage ambulation as tolerated.
- B. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
- C. Apply cold compresses to the affected area.
- D. Encourage the use of incentive spirometry.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering anticoagulants as prescribed is crucial in preventing the complication of pulmonary embolism in clients with deep vein thrombosis. Anticoagulants help prevent the formation of new clots and the enlargement of existing ones, thereby reducing the risk of a pulmonary embolism. Encouraging ambulation as tolerated is beneficial for preventing complications related to immobility, but it is not the primary intervention to prevent pulmonary embolism in this case. Applying cold compresses to the affected area may help with pain and swelling but does not address the prevention of pulmonary embolism. Encouraging the use of incentive spirometry is more relevant in preventing respiratory complications such as atelectasis, not specifically pulmonary embolism.
2. A client has a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor your heart rate daily.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- D. Take the medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking verapamil. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia, making it crucial to monitor the heart rate regularly to detect any changes promptly. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically related to verapamil administration. Choice C, avoiding grapefruit juice, is more relevant to medications metabolized by CYP3A4 enzymes, not verapamil. Choice D, taking the medication with food, is not a specific instruction for verapamil, as it can be taken with or without food.
3. The client is being ambulated due to activity intolerance caused by bacterial endocarditis. How can the nurse determine that the client is best tolerating ambulation?
- A. Mild dyspnea after walking 10 feet
- B. Minimal chest pain rated 1 on a 1-to-10 pain scale
- C. Pulse rate that increases from 68 to 94 beats per minute
- D. Blood pressure that increases from 114/82 to 118/86 mm Hg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A slight increase in blood pressure without significant symptoms indicates that the client is tolerating the activity. In this scenario, a mild increase in blood pressure without other symptoms is a positive sign of tolerance to ambulation despite the underlying condition of bacterial endocarditis. Choices A, B, and C are not the best indicators of tolerance to ambulation in this case. Mild dyspnea after walking a short distance, minimal chest pain, and an increase in pulse rate are common signs that the activity might not be well-tolerated by the client with a history of bacterial endocarditis.
4. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign should the nurse monitor for that could indicate digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity and should be closely monitored. Digoxin toxicity can lead to various cardiac dysrhythmias, with bradycardia being a significant indicator. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial to detect and manage digoxin toxicity promptly. Tachycardia, hypertension, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Tachycardia is more commonly seen with inadequate treatment of heart failure, hypertension is a possible but less common effect, and hyperglycemia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity.
5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with chronic stable angina. Which symptom would indicate that the client's condition is worsening?
- A. Increased shortness of breath with exertion
- B. Improved tolerance to activity
- C. Decreased frequency of chest pain
- D. Stable blood pressure readings
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased shortness of breath with exertion is a concerning symptom in a client with chronic stable angina as it may indicate inadequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, suggesting a worsening condition. This could be a sign of reduced blood flow to the heart, leading to increased work for the heart during exertion, resulting in increased shortness of breath. Choice B, improved tolerance to activity, is incorrect as it would indicate a positive response to treatment. Choice C, decreased frequency of chest pain, is incorrect as it would also suggest an improvement in the client's condition. Choice D, stable blood pressure readings, are not indicative of a worsening condition in chronic stable angina.
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