Nursing Elites

1. In monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are crucial laboratory values to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and that the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is appropriate. Monitoring aPTT, platelet count, or ESR is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in these cases.

2. The healthcare provider is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Limit alcohol consumption to one drink per day.
• B. Increase sodium intake to maintain blood pressure.
• C. Exercise vigorously for at least 30 minutes daily.
• D. Avoid high potassium foods like bananas.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Limiting alcohol intake is an essential lifestyle modification recommended for managing hypertension. Excessive alcohol consumption can raise blood pressure, so limiting it to one drink per day is beneficial in controlling hypertension. Alcohol moderation is a key part of a heart-healthy lifestyle for individuals with high blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can actually worsen hypertension by retaining water and increasing blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect because while exercise is important for overall health, moderate-intensity exercise is recommended for individuals with hypertension to avoid excessive strain on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because high potassium foods like bananas are actually beneficial for individuals with hypertension as they can help lower blood pressure.

3. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?

• A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.

4. While preparing a client for a cardiac catheterization, the client expresses a preference to speak with their doctor rather than the nurse. Which response by the nurse should be therapeutic?

• A. Your doctor expects me to prepare you for this procedure.
• B. That's fine, if that's what you want. I'll call your health care provider.
• C. So you're saying that you want to talk to your health care provider?
• D. I'm concerned with the way you've dismissed me. I know what I am doing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The therapeutic response by the nurse in this situation involves reflecting the client's feelings back to them, which demonstrates active listening and empathy. By restating the client's preference to talk to their doctor, the nurse acknowledges and validates the client's feelings, thereby fostering a positive therapeutic relationship and promoting open communication. Choices A and B do not acknowledge the client's preference and may come off as dismissive. Choice D is confrontational and defensive, which can lead to a breakdown in communication and trust between the nurse and the client.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of theophylline toxicity?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Nausea
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nausea is an early sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should closely monitor the client for this symptom as it can progress to more severe toxicity. Nausea can be a warning sign to prevent further complications and adjust the dosage as necessary. Drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of theophylline but not a specific sign of toxicity. Bradycardia (choice B) and constipation (choice D) are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

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