a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin coumadin the nurse should monitor which laboratory value to assess the effective
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Assessment A

1. In monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are crucial laboratory values to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and that the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is appropriate. Monitoring aPTT, platelet count, or ESR is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in these cases.

2. A client has a new prescription for amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed amlodipine, it is essential to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Amlodipine is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it stays within the desired range to prevent complications associated with low blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because amlodipine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake is not a specific instruction related to amlodipine. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice interactions are not typically a concern with amlodipine.

3. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris is prescribed nitroglycerin. The nurse should teach the client to take the medication in which way?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a rapid-acting medication used to relieve angina pain by dilating blood vessels. The correct administration is to take one tablet every 5 minutes as needed, up to three doses. This dosing regimen helps in managing acute angina episodes effectively. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin is not taken once daily. Choice C is incorrect because waiting for an hour between doses may not provide timely relief during angina attacks. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests waiting for 30 minutes before taking another dose, which could delay symptom relief in acute situations.

4. Prior to a cardiac catheterization, what instruction should the client be reminded of?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Being NPO (nothing by mouth) for 6 to 8 hours before a cardiac catheterization is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration during the procedure. This helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the test results by minimizing the risk of food or liquid in the stomach interfering with the procedure. Choice B is incorrect because the client will need to lie still during the procedure to ensure its accuracy. Choice C is incorrect as the client is typically required to lie flat for a few hours after the test, not several hours. Choice D is incorrect as the client is usually not allowed to drink fluids immediately before the test to prevent complications.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia is a known side effect of furosemide, a loop diuretic. Furosemide causes increased excretion of potassium in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body which can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, any signs or symptoms of hypokalemia should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not concerning side effects that require immediate reporting to the provider.

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