Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client to prevent bleeding complications?

• A. Use a soft-bristle toothbrush and electric razor.
• B. Increase your intake of vitamin K-rich foods.
• C. Take aspirin if you have a headache.
• D. Avoid using ice packs for injuries.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent bleeding complications in a client on anticoagulant therapy is to use a soft-bristle toothbrush and an electric razor. These implements help reduce the risk of bleeding by being gentle on the skin and reducing the chances of cuts or abrasions that could lead to bleeding in individuals on anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with the action of anticoagulants. Choice C is incorrect as aspirin is a blood thinner and can increase the risk of bleeding when combined with anticoagulant therapy. Choice D is incorrect as ice packs can help reduce bleeding and swelling in injuries, but in a client on anticoagulant therapy, it is important to avoid potential trauma to the skin that could lead to bleeding.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a beta blocker to a client with hypertension. What parameter should be checked before administering the medication?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Apical pulse
• C. Oxygen saturation
• D. Pupil reaction to light

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering a beta blocker, it is crucial to check the apical pulse. Beta blockers have the potential to slow down the heart rate, making it essential to assess the pulse rate to ensure it is within the safe range before giving the medication. Checking the serum potassium level (choice A) is important when administering certain medications, but it is not specifically required before giving a beta blocker. Oxygen saturation (choice C) and pupil reaction to light (choice D) are not directly related to monitoring parameters for beta blocker administration.

3. The client is taking interferon alfa-2a (Roferon-A) and ribavirin (Virazole) combination therapy for hepatitis C and reports overwhelming feelings of depression. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Recommend mental health counseling.
• B. Review the medication actions and interactions.
• C. Assess the client's daily activity level.
• D. Provide information about a support group.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to review the medication actions and interactions. Interferon alfa-2a and ribavirin combination therapy for hepatitis C can lead to neuropsychiatric side effects, including depression. By assessing the medication actions and interactions, the nurse can identify if the depression is a known side effect of the medications, and further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan may be required to address the client's emotional well-being. Recommending mental health counseling (choice A) may be necessary but should come after ensuring that the depression is not solely caused by medication side effects. Assessing the client's daily activity level (choice C) and providing information about a support group (choice D) are important interventions but addressing the medication's potential contribution to the depression takes precedence.

4. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

5. When preparing to administer a controlled substance, which of the following actions is required?

• A. Check the client's identification bracelet.
• B. Check the client's allergy status.
• C. Have a second nurse witness disposal of the medication.
• D. Document the administration in the client's medical record.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse witness the disposal of the medication. This measure ensures proper handling, reduces the risk of diversion, and promotes compliance with regulations regarding controlled substances. Having a second nurse witness the disposal is a safeguard to maintain accountability and prevent any potential misuse or errors during the disposal process. Checking the client's identification bracelet and allergy status are important steps in medication administration but are not specifically required for controlled substances. Documenting the administration in the client's medical record is essential but does not specifically relate to the disposal of controlled substances.

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