Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is assisting in the care of a client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which instruction should be reinforced to prevent complications?

• A. Elevate the affected leg using pillows.
• B. Perform leg exercises while sitting.
• C. Wear snug compression stockings.
• D. Avoid applying ice packs to injuries.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the affected leg using pillows is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps reduce swelling and promote venous return, thereby decreasing the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. This position aids in improving blood circulation and preventing blood clots from forming or worsening in the affected leg. Performing leg exercises while sitting might increase the risk of dislodging a blood clot. While snug compression stockings are beneficial, the primary focus should be on elevation. Avoiding ice packs on injuries is unrelated to DVT management.

2. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

3. The client has angina pectoris and is prescribed nitroglycerin patches. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Apply the patch to the chest and leave it in place for 24 hours
• B. Apply the patch to a different site each time to prevent skin irritation
• C. Remove the patch before going to bed to prevent tolerance
• D. Cut the patch in half if experiencing headaches

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to the client is to apply the nitroglycerin patch to a different site each time to prevent skin irritation. Rotating the application site is crucial to prevent skin irritation and ensure consistent absorption of the medication. Applying the patch to the same site can lead to skin irritation and decreased effectiveness. Removing the patch before going to bed is not necessary, as the patch can typically be worn for a specific duration. Cutting the patch in half if experiencing headaches is not recommended and can alter the dose of the medication.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a decline in the client's condition and the need for adjustments in their medication regimen. Therefore, the healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the client's Parkinson's disease or the medication levodopa/carbidopa. Dry mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including anticholinergics, but not specifically levodopa/carbidopa. Urinary retention and dizziness are also not typically associated with levodopa/carbidopa use for Parkinson's disease.

5. A client with chronic heart failure has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client regarding this medication?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Limit foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
• C. Report any muscle cramps or weakness to your healthcare provider.
• D. Expect to urinate more frequently while on this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to reinforce to the client regarding furosemide (Lasix) is to report any muscle cramps or weakness to the healthcare provider. Muscle cramps or weakness may indicate hypokalemia, a potential side effect of furosemide. Monitoring and reporting these symptoms promptly can help in preventing complications related to electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is not directly related to furosemide use; in fact, foods high in potassium may be beneficial for clients taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Choice D is a common expected side effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not as crucial to report as potential signs of electrolyte imbalances.

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