ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. The nurse should closely monitor for decreased potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (Choice B) refers to high sodium levels and is not the primary concern with furosemide. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is low sodium levels, which can occur but is less common than hypokalemia in clients taking furosemide.
2. The client's B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) level is 691 pg/mL. Which intervention should the nurse implement when providing care for the client?
- A. Take daily weights and monitor trends.
- B. Encourage fluid intake to improve hydration.
- C. Elevate the legs above the level of the heart.
- D. Position the client supine with the head of the bed at 30 degrees.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevated BNP levels are indicative of heart failure, which often causes fluid retention and weight gain. Taking daily weights and monitoring trends allows the nurse to assess for changes in fluid status. This intervention helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the treatment plan and identifying worsening heart failure symptoms early. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) might exacerbate fluid overload in a client with elevated BNP levels. Elevating the legs (Choice C) and positioning the client supine with the head of the bed at 30 degrees (Choice D) are interventions more suitable for clients with hypotension, not specifically indicated for managing elevated BNP levels.
3. The healthcare professional is caring for a client who has just returned from a cardiac catheterization. The healthcare professional should prioritize which assessment?
- A. Monitoring the client's vital signs every 4 hours
- B. Assessing the puncture site for bleeding
- C. Encouraging the client to ambulate early to prevent complications
- D. Providing the client with fluids to flush out the contrast dye
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the puncture site for bleeding is a critical assessment after a cardiac catheterization procedure. This is essential to detect and address any potential complications promptly, such as hemorrhage or hematoma formation. Monitoring vital signs, encouraging early ambulation, and providing fluids to flush out contrast dye are important aspects of post-cardiac catheterization care, but assessing the puncture site for bleeding takes precedence due to the immediate risk of complications such as severe bleeding that require immediate intervention.
4. The client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is scheduled for a stress test. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client before the test?
- A. Continue taking your usual dose of beta-blockers
- B. Refrain from eating or drinking anything for 4 hours before the test
- C. Wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes
- D. Avoid any physical activity for 24 hours before the test
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before a stress test, the nurse should instruct the client to wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes. This is essential as the stress test involves physical exercise, and the client should be ready for the activity involved. Continuing beta-blockers should be based on healthcare provider's instructions; adjustments may be needed. Fasting before the test is usually not necessary. Avoiding physical activity for 24 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the accuracy of the test results by not providing a true reflection of the client's exercise capacity.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking phenytoin for epilepsy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Increased thirst
- D. Frequent urination
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to oral health issues and requires dental care. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with phenytoin use. Weight loss, increased thirst, and frequent urination are not typically reported findings related to phenytoin and should not be prioritized over gingival hyperplasia when assessing a client taking this medication.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access