Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of angina is scheduled for an exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this test is to evaluate which factor?

• A. The heart's response to physical stress
• B. The client's overall physical fitness
• C. The presence of electrolyte imbalances
• D. The effectiveness of anti-anginal medications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test is used to evaluate the heart's response to physical stress. During the test, the heart's electrical activity is monitored while the client exercises, helping to identify any areas of ischemia or abnormal rhythms. This test helps healthcare providers assess the heart's function and detect any potential issues related to angina or other cardiac conditions. Choice B, the client's overall physical fitness, is incorrect because the test primarily focuses on the heart's response to stress rather than the client's general physical fitness. Choice C, the presence of electrolyte imbalances, is incorrect as this test is not specifically designed to evaluate electrolyte levels. Choice D, the effectiveness of anti-anginal medications, is incorrect as the main purpose of the test is to assess the heart's response to physical stress, not medication effectiveness.

2. The nurse is planning measures to decrease the incidence of chest pain for a client with angina pectoris. What intervention should the nurse do to effectively accomplish this goal?

• A. Provide a quiet and low-stimulus environment.
• B. Encourage the family to visit very frequently.
• C. Encourage the client to call friends and relatives each day.
• D. Recommend that the client watch TV as a constant diversion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a quiet and low-stimulus environment. A calm and quiet environment can help reduce stress, which is beneficial in preventing the occurrence of chest pain in clients with angina. Choice B is incorrect because excessive or frequent visitations may lead to increased stress and agitation for the client. Choice C is incorrect as it may not always contribute to a calm environment and could potentially increase the client's stress levels. Choice D is inappropriate as watching TV constantly may not promote a quiet and low-stimulus environment, which is essential in managing angina pectoris.

3. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is being discharged. What information should the nurse emphasize to the client regarding the use of a daily weight log?

• A. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day
• B. Weigh yourself after eating breakfast each morning
• C. Use the same scale each day to check your weight
• D. Record your weight daily and report any changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day.' Sudden weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure. This information is crucial for early intervention and monitoring of the client's condition. Weighing after eating breakfast (choice B) may not provide consistent results due to varying food and fluid intake. Using the same scale each day (choice C) ensures accuracy and consistency in weight measurements. Recording weight daily (choice D) is more frequent than necessary and may not be practical for all clients. It is essential to focus on significant weight changes to prevent unnecessary alarm or confusion.

4. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

5. Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, what parameter should the nurse check?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Apical pulse
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so it is essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure safe administration and monitor the medication's effectiveness. Checking the serum calcium level (Choice A) is not necessary before administering a calcium channel blocker, as it does not directly impact the drug's action. Monitoring the apical pulse (Choice B) is important for other types of medications like beta-blockers, not specifically for calcium channel blockers. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to administering calcium channel blockers for hypertension.

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