Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the hospital with a venous stasis leg ulcer. The nurse inspects the ulcer expecting to note which observation?

• A. The ulcer has a pale-colored base.
• B. The ulcer is deep, with even edges.
• C. The ulcer has little granulation tissue.
• D. The ulcer has a brownish or 'brawny' appearance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a venous stasis leg ulcer, the nurse should expect to note a brownish or 'brawny' appearance. This discoloration is often due to hemosiderin deposits. The correct answer is not A because venous stasis ulcers typically do not have a pale-colored base. Choice B is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers usually have irregular, shallow edges, not deep and even edges. Choice C is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers often have excess granulation tissue, not little granulation tissue. Recognizing the brownish or 'brawny' appearance is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of venous stasis leg ulcers.

2. A client has just completed an information session about measures to minimize the progression of coronary artery disease (CAD). Which statement indicates an initial understanding of lifestyle alterations?

• A. I should take daily medication for life.
• B. I should eat a diet that is low in fat and cholesterol.
• C. I should continue to smoke to keep the metabolic rate high.
• D. I should begin to exercise if the diet is not sufficient to achieve weight loss.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choosing a diet that is low in fat and cholesterol is crucial for managing and preventing the progression of coronary artery disease (CAD). This dietary change can help reduce the risk of further complications associated with CAD, such as plaque buildup in the arteries. It is a fundamental lifestyle alteration that can positively impact the client's heart health. Option A is incorrect as relying solely on medication without lifestyle changes may not address the root cause of CAD. Option C is incorrect as smoking is harmful and worsens CAD. Option D is incorrect because exercise is a crucial part of a healthy lifestyle, but dietary changes should come first in managing CAD.

3. A client has a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following beverages should the client avoid while taking this medication?

• A. Orange juice
• B. Coffee
• C. Milk
• D. Grapefruit juice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Grapefruit juice should be avoided while taking verapamil as it can increase drug levels and the risk of side effects. The interaction between grapefruit juice and verapamil can lead to higher concentrations of the medication in the bloodstream, potentially causing adverse effects. Orange juice, coffee, and milk do not have significant interactions with verapamil. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice to ensure the safe and effective use of verapamil.

4. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Increase your intake of folic acid.
• D. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing folic acid intake is crucial when taking methotrexate because the medication can lead to folic acid deficiency. Folic acid supplementation helps counteract this deficiency and reduces the risk of adverse effects associated with methotrexate therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding dairy products is not specifically necessary for methotrexate therapy. Methotrexate is usually taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to methotrexate use.

5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

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