Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

2. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which medication would the nurse expect to be administered to help reduce myocardial oxygen demand?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Morphine
• C. Atropine
• D. Lidocaine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of an acute myocardial infarction (MI), morphine is administered to relieve pain and reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By alleviating pain and anxiety, morphine helps reduce oxygen demand on the heart, which is beneficial in the setting of an MI. Aspirin, commonly used for its antiplatelet effects, helps inhibit platelet aggregation and is crucial in the management of MI to prevent further clot formation. Atropine is a medication used to treat symptomatic bradycardia by increasing heart rate, not commonly indicated in the management of acute MI. Lidocaine is used for ventricular dysrhythmias and is not typically given to reduce myocardial oxygen demand in an acute MI scenario.

3. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Set the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Remove oxygen while the client is eating.
• C. Ensure the client wears a nasal cannula instead of a face mask.
• D. Maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.

4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with or without food.
• B. Monitor for signs of hypokalemia.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Expect an increase in urination.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed furosemide is to expect an increase in urination. Furosemide is a diuretic that works by increasing urine production, so it is essential for the client to anticipate and understand this effect. Monitoring for signs of hypokalemia and increasing potassium-rich foods are not directly related to furosemide use. Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of furosemide, so monitoring for it is crucial. Increasing potassium-rich foods can help counteract potassium loss due to diuretic use. Taking furosemide with food is not required, as it can be taken with or without food.

5. The client is starting therapy with digoxin (Lanoxin). What instruction should the nurse reinforce about the medication?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Avoid dairy products.
• C. Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.
• D. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.' When a client is taking digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of toxicity, such as yellow or blurred vision, as these can indicate an adverse reaction. Reporting these visual disturbances promptly to the healthcare provider is important for further evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking digoxin with meals, avoiding dairy products, or increasing potassium-rich foods are not specific instructions related to monitoring for adverse effects of digoxin therapy.

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