Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) and reports dyspnea at rest. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Perform continuous ECG monitoring.
• D. Apply a nasal cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority intervention for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps improve lung expansion and reduces the workload on the heart, aiding in respiratory effort and cardiac function. This intervention is crucial in enhancing oxygenation and optimizing cardiac output in individuals with CAD presenting with dyspnea. Administering oxygen (Choice B) is important but elevating the head of the bed takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's respiratory distress. Continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) and applying a nasal cannula (Choice D) are relevant interventions but not the priority when a client with CAD reports dyspnea at rest.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of enalapril (Vasotec) to a client with hypertension. Before administering the medication, the nurse should check which priority assessment?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering enalapril, an antihypertensive medication, the nurse should prioritize checking the client's blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it is at an acceptable level before giving the medication, as enalapril can further lower blood pressure. This assessment is crucial in preventing potential hypotensive episodes and adverse effects associated with excessive blood pressure reduction. Heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are important assessments but are not the priority before administering enalapril, which primarily affects blood pressure levels.

3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

• A. Take the aspirin on an empty stomach for better absorption.
• B. Stop taking the aspirin if you experience any stomach discomfort.
• C. Take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation.
• D. Take the aspirin only when you have chest pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation. This is crucial for clients with a history of coronary artery disease as it helps minimize gastrointestinal side effects like irritation and bleeding. Option A is incorrect because aspirin should not be taken on an empty stomach to prevent stomach upset. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing aspirin at the first sign of stomach discomfort can be harmful, and a healthcare provider should be consulted instead. Option D is incorrect because aspirin is often prescribed for prevention in cardiovascular conditions, not just for chest pain relief.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia is a known side effect of furosemide, a loop diuretic. Furosemide causes increased excretion of potassium in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body which can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, any signs or symptoms of hypokalemia should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not concerning side effects that require immediate reporting to the provider.

5. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

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