Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris is prescribed nitroglycerin tablets. How should the nurse instruct the client to take the medication?

• A. Swallow the tablet whole with water
• B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve
• C. Chew the tablet and then swallow
• D. Place the tablet between the cheek and gum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is most effective when administered sublingually (under the tongue) as it is rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream. Placing the tablet under the tongue allows for quick absorption and faster relief of angina symptoms. Chewing the tablet, swallowing it, or placing it between the cheek and gum would not provide the same rapid onset of action needed during an angina episode. Therefore, the correct instruction for the client is to place the nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve for optimal effectiveness.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which action should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?

• A. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe every 1 to 2 hours.
• B. Maintain the client in a supine position at all times.
• C. Keep the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours.
• D. Restrict the client's fluid intake to prevent overload.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe every 1 to 2 hours is crucial post-CABG surgery to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis and pneumonia. These actions help to expand lung volume, clear secretions, and prevent the collapse of alveoli. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining the client in a supine position at all times can lead to complications like decreased lung expansion, keeping the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours may increase the risk of thromboembolism, and restricting fluid intake postoperatively can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

3. A hypertensive client who has been taking metoprolol (Lopressor) has been prescribed to decrease the dose of the medication. The client asks the nurse why this must be done over a period of 1 to 2 weeks. In formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the understanding that abrupt withdrawal could affect the client in which way?

• A. Result in hypoglycemia
• B. Give the client insomnia
• C. Precipitate rebound hypertension
• D. Cause enhanced side effects of other prescribed medications

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Abruptly stopping metoprolol can lead to rebound hypertension, causing a sudden increase in blood pressure due to the sudden withdrawal of the medication. Gradually tapering the dose helps the body adjust and reduces the risk of this adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stopping metoprolol suddenly is not known to result in hypoglycemia, insomnia, or enhanced side effects of other medications.

4. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Tremors
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.

5. A client has a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Expect red-orange discoloration of body fluids.
• C. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• D. Avoid consuming dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client to expect red-orange discoloration of body fluids when taking rifampin. Rifampin is known to cause this side effect, which is harmless but can be surprising to patients. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this expected change to prevent unnecessary concern or alarm. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to rifampin, and taking the medication with food or avoiding dairy products are not specific instructions for this medication.

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