ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
2. A client reports chest pain that is unrelieved by three doses of nitroglycerin taken 5 minutes apart. What is the nurse's next best action?
- A. Administer another dose of nitroglycerin.
- B. Call the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Provide oxygen via nasal cannula.
- D. Place the client in a supine position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client's chest pain persists despite three doses of nitroglycerin, indicating a potentially severe cardiac issue like a myocardial infarction. The priority for the nurse in this situation is to involve the healthcare provider promptly. Calling the healthcare provider immediately is essential to ensure timely evaluation and appropriate intervention for the client. Administering more nitroglycerin without further assessment or instructions may not be safe and could delay necessary treatments. Providing oxygen or changing the client's position may offer some comfort but does not address the underlying potentially life-threatening condition, making these options less appropriate as the immediate next best action.
3. The healthcare provider assesses a client who has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for cardiac disease. Which electrocardiographic change would be a concern for a client taking a diuretic?
- A. Tall, spiked T waves
- B. A prolonged QT interval
- C. A widening QRS complex
- D. Presence of a U wave
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The presence of a U wave is often associated with hypokalemia, a possible side effect of diuretic therapy like furosemide. Hypokalemia can lead to U wave formation on an electrocardiogram, making the presence of U waves a concerning finding in clients taking diuretics. Tall, spiked T waves are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged QT interval is more commonly associated with conditions like Long QT syndrome or certain medications, not specifically with diuretics. A widening QRS complex is usually seen in conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks, rather than being directly related to diuretic use.
4. The client is starting therapy with digoxin (Lanoxin). What instruction should the nurse reinforce about the medication?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Avoid dairy products.
- C. Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.
- D. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.' When a client is taking digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of toxicity, such as yellow or blurred vision, as these can indicate an adverse reaction. Reporting these visual disturbances promptly to the healthcare provider is important for further evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking digoxin with meals, avoiding dairy products, or increasing potassium-rich foods are not specific instructions related to monitoring for adverse effects of digoxin therapy.
5. The client is scheduled to undergo a treadmill stress test. Which instruction should the client be reinforced with?
- A. Eat a light meal before the test.
- B. Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.
- C. Avoid all physical activity the morning of the test.
- D. Take prescribed medications right before the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.' Wearing comfortable shoes and clothing is crucial for the client undergoing a treadmill stress test to ensure they can complete the test without discomfort. The right attire will help the client move freely and reduce the risk of any hindrance during the test, which requires physical activity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A light meal before the test may be recommended, but it's not as crucial as wearing suitable attire. Avoiding physical activity the morning of the test is not necessary as the test requires physical activity. Taking prescribed medications right before the test instructions should be followed as per the healthcare provider's advice and not as a general rule for all clients undergoing the test.
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