the lpnlvn is assisting in the care of a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving digoxin lanoxin which sign should the nurse monitor for th
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Pharmacology for LPN

1. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign should the nurse monitor for that could indicate digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity and should be closely monitored. Digoxin toxicity can lead to various cardiac dysrhythmias, with bradycardia being a significant indicator. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial to detect and manage digoxin toxicity promptly. Tachycardia, hypertension, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Tachycardia is more commonly seen with inadequate treatment of heart failure, hypertension is a possible but less common effect, and hyperglycemia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity.

2. The client needs instruction on using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction should be given?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) involves exhaling fully before inhaling deeply while pressing the canister to ensure effective delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as exhaling should precede inhaling. Choice C is incorrect as taking two short breaths is not part of the correct technique. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to hold the breath for a specific time after inhaling the medication.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report a persistent dry cough. ACE inhibitors can cause a common side effect of a persistent dry cough, which should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Option A is incorrect because the timing of ACE inhibitor administration is usually not specified to be at bedtime. Option C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can lead to hyperkalemia when taking ACE inhibitors. Option D is incorrect because ACE inhibitors can be taken with or without food.

4. A client has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for a dry cough. Captopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. If a dry cough develops, it should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly, as it may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect as hypokalemia is not a common side effect of captopril. Choice C is incorrect as captopril is typically taken during the day and not specifically at bedtime.

5. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

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