Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving thrombolytic therapy. The nurse monitors the client for which potential complication associated with this therapy?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bleeding
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy is associated with an increased risk of bleeding due to its mechanism of action in dissolving blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of hemorrhage, such as unexplained bruising, bleeding gums, or blood in the urine or stools. Hypertension is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Hyperkalemia and hypoglycemia are also not typically associated with this therapy.

2. Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client diagnosed with heart failure, the nurse should perform which assessment?

• A. Check the blood pressure.
• B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
• C. Assess the apical pulse.
• D. Review the latest electrolyte levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse is crucial before administering digoxin because the medication can lead to bradycardia. Monitoring the apical pulse helps determine the heart rate, and digoxin is typically withheld if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute. This assessment is essential to prevent potential adverse effects associated with digoxin administration. Checking the blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not specific to digoxin administration. Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) (Choice B) may provide valuable information but is not the primary assessment needed before administering digoxin. Reviewing the latest electrolyte levels (Choice D) is important for assessing the overall condition but is not the immediate assessment required before administering digoxin.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to ensure correct use?

• A. Inhale deeply and slowly after activating the MDI.
• B. Hold the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication.
• C. Rinse the mouth immediately after using the MDI.
• D. Exhale fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inhaling deeply and slowly after activating the MDI is the correct instruction to ensure effective delivery of the medication to the lungs. This technique helps the medication reach the lower airways where it can be most beneficial in managing COPD symptoms. Inhaling too quickly or not deeply enough may result in improper drug delivery and reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) may not be necessary and could cause discomfort without additional benefits. Rinsing the mouth immediately after using the MDI (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Exhaling fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth (Choice D) is not ideal as it may result in inadequate medication delivery to the lungs.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of enalapril (Vasotec) to a client with hypertension. Before administering the medication, the nurse should check which priority assessment?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering enalapril, an antihypertensive medication, the nurse should prioritize checking the client's blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it is at an acceptable level before giving the medication, as enalapril can further lower blood pressure. This assessment is crucial in preventing potential hypotensive episodes and adverse effects associated with excessive blood pressure reduction. Heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are important assessments but are not the priority before administering enalapril, which primarily affects blood pressure levels.

5. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

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