Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase your fluid intake.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• D. Take the medication in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing fluid intake is essential when taking allopurinol to prevent the formation of kidney stones. Allopurinol can increase the levels of uric acid in the body, which can lead to kidney stone formation. By increasing fluid intake, the client can help flush out excess uric acid and prevent the development of kidney stones. It is important to drink plenty of water throughout the day to maintain adequate hydration and reduce the risk of kidney stone formation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking allopurinol with food or in the morning does not specifically relate to preventing kidney stone formation. Avoiding dairy products is not a standard recommendation when taking allopurinol.

2. A client has a new prescription for amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor blood pressure daily.
• C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed amlodipine, it is essential to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Amlodipine is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it stays within the desired range to prevent complications associated with low blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because amlodipine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake is not a specific instruction related to amlodipine. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice interactions are not typically a concern with amlodipine.

3. The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client with coronary artery disease who is prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The nurse should advise the client to choose which food item?

• A. Eggs and bacon
• B. Oatmeal with fresh fruit
• C. Cream of chicken soup
• D. Grilled cheese sandwich

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is a suitable choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet as it is low in cholesterol and provides heart-healthy benefits. Eggs and bacon, cream of chicken soup, and grilled cheese sandwich are higher in cholesterol and may not be as heart-healthy for this client. Eggs and bacon are high in cholesterol, cream of chicken soup may contain saturated fats, and a grilled cheese sandwich typically contains high amounts of fat and cholesterol, making them less suitable choices for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet.

4. When preparing to administer a controlled substance, which of the following actions is required?

• A. Check the client's identification bracelet.
• B. Check the client's allergy status.
• C. Have a second nurse witness disposal of the medication.
• D. Document the administration in the client's medical record.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse witness the disposal of the medication. This measure ensures proper handling, reduces the risk of diversion, and promotes compliance with regulations regarding controlled substances. Having a second nurse witness the disposal is a safeguard to maintain accountability and prevent any potential misuse or errors during the disposal process. Checking the client's identification bracelet and allergy status are important steps in medication administration but are not specifically required for controlled substances. Documenting the administration in the client's medical record is essential but does not specifically relate to the disposal of controlled substances.

5. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

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