Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pericarditis. The nurse reviews the client's record for which sign or symptom that differentiates pericarditis from other cardiopulmonary problems?

• A. Anterior chest pain
• B. Pericardial friction rub
• C. Weakness and irritability
• D. Chest pain that worsens with inspiration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pericardial friction rub is a distinctive sign of pericarditis, characterized by a scraping or grating sound heard on auscultation, which helps differentiate pericarditis from other cardiopulmonary conditions. While anterior chest pain may be present in various cardiopulmonary issues, it is not specific to pericarditis. Weakness and irritability are nonspecific symptoms that can be seen in many conditions. Chest pain worsening with inspiration is more indicative of pleuritic conditions such as pleurisy or pneumonia, rather than pericarditis.

2. Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client diagnosed with heart failure, the nurse should perform which assessment?

• A. Check the blood pressure.
• B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
• C. Assess the apical pulse.
• D. Review the latest electrolyte levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse is crucial before administering digoxin because the medication can lead to bradycardia. Monitoring the apical pulse helps determine the heart rate, and digoxin is typically withheld if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute. This assessment is essential to prevent potential adverse effects associated with digoxin administration. Checking the blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not specific to digoxin administration. Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) (Choice B) may provide valuable information but is not the primary assessment needed before administering digoxin. Reviewing the latest electrolyte levels (Choice D) is important for assessing the overall condition but is not the immediate assessment required before administering digoxin.

3. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

4. The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client with coronary artery disease who is prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The nurse should advise the client to choose which food item?

• A. Eggs and bacon
• B. Oatmeal with fresh fruit
• C. Cream of chicken soup
• D. Grilled cheese sandwich

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is a suitable choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet as it is low in cholesterol and provides heart-healthy benefits. Eggs and bacon, cream of chicken soup, and grilled cheese sandwich are higher in cholesterol and may not be as heart-healthy for this client. Eggs and bacon are high in cholesterol, cream of chicken soup may contain saturated fats, and a grilled cheese sandwich typically contains high amounts of fat and cholesterol, making them less suitable choices for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet.

5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

• A. Take the aspirin on an empty stomach for better absorption.
• B. Stop taking the aspirin if you experience any stomach discomfort.
• C. Take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation.
• D. Take the aspirin only when you have chest pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation. This is crucial for clients with a history of coronary artery disease as it helps minimize gastrointestinal side effects like irritation and bleeding. Option A is incorrect because aspirin should not be taken on an empty stomach to prevent stomach upset. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing aspirin at the first sign of stomach discomfort can be harmful, and a healthcare provider should be consulted instead. Option D is incorrect because aspirin is often prescribed for prevention in cardiovascular conditions, not just for chest pain relief.

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