Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pericarditis. The nurse reviews the client's record for which sign or symptom that differentiates pericarditis from other cardiopulmonary problems?

• A. Anterior chest pain
• B. Pericardial friction rub
• C. Weakness and irritability
• D. Chest pain that worsens with inspiration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pericardial friction rub is a distinctive sign of pericarditis, characterized by a scraping or grating sound heard on auscultation, which helps differentiate pericarditis from other cardiopulmonary conditions. While anterior chest pain may be present in various cardiopulmonary issues, it is not specific to pericarditis. Weakness and irritability are nonspecific symptoms that can be seen in many conditions. Chest pain worsening with inspiration is more indicative of pleuritic conditions such as pleurisy or pneumonia, rather than pericarditis.

2. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should prepare the client for which immediate diagnostic test?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Coronary angiography

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the most immediate and essential test to diagnose a myocardial infarction (MI) and assess the extent of heart damage. An ECG can quickly identify changes in the heart's electrical activity, allowing prompt initiation of appropriate interventions. A chest x-ray (Choice A) may show other conditions affecting the heart, but it is not the immediate test of choice for diagnosing an MI. An echocardiogram (Choice C) and coronary angiography (Choice D) are valuable in further assessing cardiac function and anatomy post-MI but are not the first-line diagnostic tests due to their time-consuming nature compared to an ECG.

3. The client needs instruction on using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction should be given?

• A. Inhale the medication and then exhale immediately
• B. Exhale fully, then place the inhaler in your mouth and inhale deeply while pressing the canister
• C. Take two short breaths before inhaling the medication
• D. Hold your breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) involves exhaling fully before inhaling deeply while pressing the canister to ensure effective delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as exhaling should precede inhaling. Choice C is incorrect as taking two short breaths is not part of the correct technique. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to hold the breath for a specific time after inhaling the medication.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by dilating blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Therefore, a potential adverse effect of enalapril is hypotension, not hypertension (choice A), tachycardia (choice C), or hyperglycemia (choice D). Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications.

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