Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving morphine for pain. Which of the following assessments is the priority?

• A. Urine output
• B. Pupil reaction
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate. Monitoring the respiratory rate is the priority assessment for a client receiving morphine due to the risk of respiratory depression. Morphine is a potent opioid that can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect that can be life-threatening. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression early and intervene promptly. Assessing urine output is important but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory depression with morphine. Pupil reaction and bowel sounds are also important assessments but do not take precedence over monitoring the respiratory rate when a client is on morphine.

2. The healthcare provider is reinforcing teaching for a client who is starting statin therapy. Which dietary advice should the healthcare provider give?

• A. Eat more whole grains.
• B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• C. Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice.
• D. Increase intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice. Grapefruit and grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of statins, leading to an increased risk of adverse effects. It is crucial for clients on statin therapy to avoid grapefruit products to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the metabolism or effectiveness of statin therapy.

3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

• A. Take the aspirin on an empty stomach for better absorption.
• B. Stop taking the aspirin if you experience any stomach discomfort.
• C. Take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation.
• D. Take the aspirin only when you have chest pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation. This is crucial for clients with a history of coronary artery disease as it helps minimize gastrointestinal side effects like irritation and bleeding. Option A is incorrect because aspirin should not be taken on an empty stomach to prevent stomach upset. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing aspirin at the first sign of stomach discomfort can be harmful, and a healthcare provider should be consulted instead. Option D is incorrect because aspirin is often prescribed for prevention in cardiovascular conditions, not just for chest pain relief.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid using a soft toothbrush.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding.
• C. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
• D. Take the medication with food.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Report any signs of bleeding.' When a patient is prescribed warfarin, it is essential to monitor for signs of bleeding as warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoid using a soft toothbrush is not directly related to warfarin therapy, increasing the intake of leafy green vegetables can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness due to its vitamin K content, and taking warfarin with food is unnecessary as it can be taken with or without food.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

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