the nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of heart failure who is receiving furosemide lasix which laboratory value is most important for the
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Assessment A

1. The client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. When a client is receiving furosemide, a loop diuretic, it can lead to potassium loss. Monitoring the serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly impacted by furosemide. Serum sodium (Choice B) may be affected, but monitoring potassium is more critical due to the risk of arrhythmias. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (Choice D) is important for assessing kidney function but is not the most crucial value to monitor in a client taking furosemide.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, which increases the risk of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can have serious implications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels while on furosemide to prevent complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because furosemide leads to potassium loss, not retention. Hypernatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client with rheumatoid arthritis prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 1,200/mm³ indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of methotrexate that can lead to increased risk of infections. It is crucial to report this finding promptly to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not represent significant concerns related to methotrexate therapy in this context.

4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which diagnostic test is most likely to be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the primary diagnostic tool used to confirm a myocardial infarction. An ECG provides immediate information on cardiac function and can show characteristic changes indicative of a myocardial infarction, such as ST-segment elevation or depression. An echocardiogram (Choice A) is useful for assessing heart structure and function but is not typically used as the primary test for confirming an acute myocardial infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice C) may show certain changes in heart size or pulmonary congestion but is not the primary diagnostic test for MI. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice D) provides information about the cellular components of blood and is not specific to confirming a myocardial infarction.

5. A client has a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client to expect red-orange discoloration of body fluids when taking rifampin. Rifampin is known to cause this side effect, which is harmless but can be surprising to patients. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this expected change to prevent unnecessary concern or alarm. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to rifampin, and taking the medication with food or avoiding dairy products are not specific instructions for this medication.

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