Nursing Elites

1. When reinforcing dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease prescribed a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet, which food item should the nurse advise the client to choose?

• A. Whole milk
• B. Grilled salmon
• C. Fried chicken
• D. Bacon and eggs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Grilled salmon is the correct choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet because it is low in saturated fat and high in omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. Whole milk, fried chicken, and bacon and eggs are higher in saturated fats and cholesterol, making them less suitable choices for this client. Whole milk is high in saturated fat, while fried chicken and bacon and eggs are sources of both saturated fat and cholesterol, which can negatively impact heart health in clients with coronary artery disease.

2. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

3. A client has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication at bedtime.
• B. I may experience sexual dysfunction.
• C. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• D. I may experience weight loss while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of sertraline. When the client mentions this potential side effect, it indicates an understanding of the teaching about the medication's effects. This response shows awareness of a significant adverse effect that the client should be informed about when starting sertraline. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking sertraline at bedtime, avoiding grapefruit juice, or experiencing weight loss are not key teaching points associated with this medication.

4. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Store the medication in a cool, dry place.
• B. Take the medication as directed by the healthcare provider.
• C. Take the medication 30 minutes before meals.
• D. Take the medication at the first sign of chest pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client to take nitroglycerin at the first sign of chest pain is crucial for immediate relief of angina symptoms. Nitroglycerin is a fast-acting medication that helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Therefore, prompt administration at the onset of chest pain is essential to alleviate anginal episodes effectively. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because storing the medication properly, taking it as directed, or before meals are not specific instructions for managing acute anginal episodes, which require immediate action for symptom relief.

5. A client's serum calcium level is 7.9 mg/dL. The nurse is immediately concerned, knowing that this level could lead to which complication?

• A. Stroke
• B. Cardiac arrest
• C. High blood pressure
• D. Urinary stone formation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum calcium level below normal (hypocalcemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and potentially cardiac arrest. Calcium plays a crucial role in cardiac muscle contractility, and low levels can disrupt normal heart function, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as hypocalcemia is not directly associated with stroke, high blood pressure, or urinary stone formation. The immediate concern with low serum calcium levels is the risk of cardiac complications.

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