Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor blood pressure daily.
• C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed amlodipine, it is essential to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Amlodipine is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it stays within the desired range to prevent complications associated with low blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because amlodipine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake is not a specific instruction related to amlodipine. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice interactions are not typically a concern with amlodipine.

2. The healthcare provider is reviewing the medication orders for a client with angina pectoris. Which medication is typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Nitroglycerin
• C. Atenolol
• D. Simvastatin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is the medication typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks. It works by dilating blood vessels, increasing blood flow, and reducing the heart's workload, hence relieving angina symptoms. Aspirin is often used to prevent blood clots, not specifically to prevent angina attacks. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to manage high blood pressure and chest pain but is not typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks. Simvastatin is a statin medication primarily used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for preventing angina attacks.

3. The nurse is teaching a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) about the risk factors for the disease. Which modifiable risk factor should the nurse emphasize?

• A. Family history
• B. Age
• C. Cigarette smoking
• D. Gender

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cigarette smoking is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease (CAD) as it can be changed or controlled to reduce the risk of developing CAD. Family history, age, and gender are non-modifiable risk factors that cannot be changed. Emphasizing the importance of quitting smoking can help the client reduce their risk of CAD and improve their overall cardiovascular health. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A (Family history), B (Age), and D (Gender) are non-modifiable risk factors and not the focus of modifiable risk reduction strategies in CAD prevention.

4. The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

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