ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Monitor for muscle weakness.
- C. Eat foods high in potassium.
- D. Expect weight gain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed furosemide is to eat foods high in potassium. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urine output. Consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, spinach, and potatoes can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning, monitoring for muscle weakness, and expecting weight gain are not directly related to the potential side effects or necessary dietary adjustments when taking furosemide.
2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?
- A. Tall, peaked T waves
- B. ST segment depressions
- C. Shortened P-R intervals
- D. Shortening of the QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.
3. The client is starting therapy with digoxin (Lanoxin). What instruction should the nurse reinforce about the medication?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Avoid dairy products.
- C. Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.
- D. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.' When a client is taking digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of toxicity, such as yellow or blurred vision, as these can indicate an adverse reaction. Reporting these visual disturbances promptly to the healthcare provider is important for further evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking digoxin with meals, avoiding dairy products, or increasing potassium-rich foods are not specific instructions related to monitoring for adverse effects of digoxin therapy.
4. A client with a history of heart failure is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute.
- B. Increase your fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day.
- C. Report any weight loss of more than 2 pounds in a week.
- D. Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for discharge teaching regarding digoxin (Lanoxin) is to advise the client to take their pulse before each dose and to hold the medication if their pulse is below 60 beats per minute. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so monitoring the pulse is crucial to prevent potential complications. Choice B is incorrect because excessive fluid intake can lead to fluid overload, worsening heart failure. Choice C is not directly related to digoxin therapy. Choice D is inaccurate as digoxin is usually taken on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.
5. The client will wear a Holter monitor for continuous cardiac monitoring over the next 24 hours. What action should the nurse take to assist the client?
- A. Shave the front of the client's chest
- B. Give the client a device holder to wear around the waist
- C. Teach the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours
- D. Tell the client to cover the monitor in plastic wrap before taking a bath
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing the client with a device holder to wear around the waist allows them to comfortably carry the Holter monitor while engaging in normal activities throughout the 24-hour monitoring period. This approach supports the client's mobility and ensures the monitor is securely in place for accurate readings. Shaving the front of the client's chest is unnecessary and not a standard practice for Holter monitor placement. Instructing the client to rest as much as possible does not promote normal daily activities which are important for accurate monitoring. Covering the monitor in plastic wrap before bathing is not recommended as it may affect the functionality of the device.
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