Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Monitor for muscle weakness.
• C. Eat foods high in potassium.
• D. Expect weight gain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed furosemide is to eat foods high in potassium. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urine output. Consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, spinach, and potatoes can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning, monitoring for muscle weakness, and expecting weight gain are not directly related to the potential side effects or necessary dietary adjustments when taking furosemide.

2. A client has a new prescription for phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Expect a metallic taste in your mouth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed phenytoin is to avoid consuming dairy products. Dairy products can reduce the absorption of phenytoin. Taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) is generally a good practice for oral medications but is not specifically required for phenytoin. Taking the medication on an empty stomach (Choice C) can lead to gastrointestinal upset, so it is not recommended for phenytoin. Expecting a metallic taste in the mouth (Choice D) is a possible side effect of phenytoin but is not a crucial instruction for the client to follow.

3. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

4. The healthcare provider is reviewing the medication orders for a client with angina pectoris. Which medication is typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Nitroglycerin
• C. Atenolol
• D. Simvastatin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is the medication typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks. It works by dilating blood vessels, increasing blood flow, and reducing the heart's workload, hence relieving angina symptoms. Aspirin is often used to prevent blood clots, not specifically to prevent angina attacks. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to manage high blood pressure and chest pain but is not typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks. Simvastatin is a statin medication primarily used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for preventing angina attacks.

5. A client who has been taking prednisone is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperglycemia is a significant finding in a client taking prednisone as it indicates the medication's impact on glucose metabolism. Prednisone can lead to increased blood sugar levels, which can be detrimental, especially in clients with diabetes or predisposition to hyperglycemia. Reporting hyperglycemia promptly to the healthcare provider is crucial for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are common side effects of prednisone but are not as concerning as hyperglycemia, which requires immediate attention to avoid potential adverse effects.

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