Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for amitriptyline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Monitor for signs of weight gain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is prescribed amitriptyline, it is important to instruct them to take the medication with a full glass of water. This instruction helps prevent esophageal irritation, as amitriptyline can be harsh on the esophagus. Option C is the correct choice. Option A, taking the medication in the morning, is not specific to amitriptyline and can vary depending on the individual's condition. Option B, avoiding grapefruit juice, is a general precaution for many medications but not specifically related to amitriptyline. Option D, monitoring for signs of weight gain, is not a direct instruction for taking the medication itself and may not be a common side effect of amitriptyline.

2. A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test result should the LPN/LVN monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct laboratory test result that the LPN/LVN should monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose of heparin therapy is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test is specifically used to monitor heparin therapy, ensuring that the dose administered is within the therapeutic range. Monitoring aPTT helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation by maintaining the appropriate anticoagulant effect of heparin. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is not a direct indicator of heparin's therapeutic effect and is not used to monitor heparin therapy.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

4. A client admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) reports dyspnea at rest. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Providing a walker to aid in ambulation
• B. Elevating the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees
• C. Performing continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation
• D. Placing an oxygen cannula at the bedside for use if needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest, the priority intervention should be to elevate the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the work of breathing, optimizes lung expansion, and can alleviate symptoms of dyspnea by improving oxygenation and ventilation. Providing a walker for ambulation, monitoring oxygen saturation, and having an oxygen cannula at the bedside are important interventions but not the priority when the client is experiencing dyspnea at rest. Elevating the head of the bed is crucial to improve respiratory function and should be prioritized in this situation.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client following cardioversion. Which observation should be of the highest priority to the healthcare provider?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Status of airway
• C. Oxygen flow rate
• D. Level of consciousness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The status of the airway is the highest priority following cardioversion as it ensures proper oxygenation and helps prevent complications such as airway obstruction and respiratory distress. Maintaining a patent airway is crucial for the client's respiratory function and overall well-being immediately after cardioversion. Monitoring the airway ensures that the client can breathe effectively and minimizes the risk of hypoxia and other serious respiratory issues. While blood pressure, oxygen flow rate, and level of consciousness are also important parameters to monitor, they are secondary to ensuring a clear and patent airway for adequate oxygenation.

Similar Questions