Nursing Elites

1. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

• A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
• B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
• C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
• D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

2. Prior to a cardiac catheterization, what instruction should the client be reminded of?

• A. You will need to be NPO for 6 to 8 hours before the procedure.
• B. You will not be able to move around during the procedure.
• C. You will be required to lie still for several hours after the test.
• D. You will not have to drink any fluids immediately before the test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Being NPO (nothing by mouth) for 6 to 8 hours before a cardiac catheterization is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration during the procedure. This helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the test results by minimizing the risk of food or liquid in the stomach interfering with the procedure. Choice B is incorrect because the client will need to lie still during the procedure to ensure its accuracy. Choice C is incorrect as the client is typically required to lie flat for a few hours after the test, not several hours. Choice D is incorrect as the client is usually not allowed to drink fluids immediately before the test to prevent complications.

3. A client is admitted to the hospital with a venous stasis leg ulcer. The nurse inspects the ulcer expecting to note which observation?

• A. The ulcer has a pale-colored base.
• B. The ulcer is deep, with even edges.
• C. The ulcer has little granulation tissue.
• D. The ulcer has a brownish or 'brawny' appearance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a venous stasis leg ulcer, the nurse should expect to note a brownish or 'brawny' appearance. This discoloration is often due to hemosiderin deposits. The correct answer is not A because venous stasis ulcers typically do not have a pale-colored base. Choice B is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers usually have irregular, shallow edges, not deep and even edges. Choice C is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers often have excess granulation tissue, not little granulation tissue. Recognizing the brownish or 'brawny' appearance is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of venous stasis leg ulcers.

4. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction has a new activity prescription allowing the client to have bathroom privileges. As the client stands and begins to walk, the client begins to complain of chest pain. The nurse should take which action?

• A. Assist the client to get back into bed.
• B. Report the chest pain episode to the healthcare provider.
• C. Tell the client to stand still and take the client's blood pressure.
• D. Give a nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet and assist the client to the bathroom.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with myocardial infarction experiencing chest pain during activity, the priority action is to stop the activity immediately to reduce the heart's workload and oxygen demand. Assisting the client back to bed helps in reducing stress on the heart and can prevent worsening of the condition. Reporting the chest pain episode to the healthcare provider is important but should not delay taking immediate action to alleviate symptoms. Taking the client's blood pressure and administering nitroglycerin are secondary actions after ensuring the client's safety and comfort. Therefore, the correct action is to assist the client back into bed.

5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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