ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?
- A. Take the aspirin on an empty stomach for better absorption.
- B. Stop taking the aspirin if you experience any stomach discomfort.
- C. Take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation.
- D. Take the aspirin only when you have chest pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation. This is crucial for clients with a history of coronary artery disease as it helps minimize gastrointestinal side effects like irritation and bleeding. Option A is incorrect because aspirin should not be taken on an empty stomach to prevent stomach upset. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing aspirin at the first sign of stomach discomfort can be harmful, and a healthcare provider should be consulted instead. Option D is incorrect because aspirin is often prescribed for prevention in cardiovascular conditions, not just for chest pain relief.
2. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid consuming dairy products.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Increase your intake of folic acid.
- D. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increasing folic acid intake is crucial when taking methotrexate because the medication can lead to folic acid deficiency. Folic acid supplementation helps counteract this deficiency and reduces the risk of adverse effects associated with methotrexate therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding dairy products is not specifically necessary for methotrexate therapy. Methotrexate is usually taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to methotrexate use.
3. Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, what parameter should the nurse check?
- A. Serum calcium level
- B. Apical pulse
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so it is essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure safe administration and monitor the medication's effectiveness. Checking the serum calcium level (Choice A) is not necessary before administering a calcium channel blocker, as it does not directly impact the drug's action. Monitoring the apical pulse (Choice B) is important for other types of medications like beta-blockers, not specifically for calcium channel blockers. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to administering calcium channel blockers for hypertension.
4. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?
- A. Limit your fluid intake to avoid fluid overload.
- B. Increase your potassium intake by eating bananas and oranges.
- C. Weigh yourself once a week to monitor for fluid retention.
- D. Take the medication at night to avoid frequent urination during the day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to reinforce with the client is to increase potassium intake by eating bananas and oranges. Furosemide can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. By increasing potassium intake through diet, the client can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance and maintain overall health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting fluid intake is not the appropriate instruction, as furosemide is a diuretic that already helps in fluid management. Weighing once a week is not as crucial as monitoring potassium levels, and taking the medication at night does not impact potassium levels.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry cough
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance associated with furosemide use due to its diuretic effect, which can lead to potassium loss. It is crucial to report hypokalemia promptly to the provider as it can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are essential in patients taking furosemide to prevent adverse effects related to electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect findings to report in a client prescribed furosemide. Weight gain is not typically associated with furosemide use, a dry cough is more commonly linked to ACE inhibitors, and increased appetite is not a common adverse effect of furosemide.
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