ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?
- A. Take the aspirin on an empty stomach for better absorption.
- B. Stop taking the aspirin if you experience any stomach discomfort.
- C. Take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation.
- D. Take the aspirin only when you have chest pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation. This is crucial for clients with a history of coronary artery disease as it helps minimize gastrointestinal side effects like irritation and bleeding. Option A is incorrect because aspirin should not be taken on an empty stomach to prevent stomach upset. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing aspirin at the first sign of stomach discomfort can be harmful, and a healthcare provider should be consulted instead. Option D is incorrect because aspirin is often prescribed for prevention in cardiovascular conditions, not just for chest pain relief.
2. The client is starting therapy with digoxin (Lanoxin). What instruction should the nurse reinforce about the medication?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Avoid dairy products.
- C. Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.
- D. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.' When a client is taking digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of toxicity, such as yellow or blurred vision, as these can indicate an adverse reaction. Reporting these visual disturbances promptly to the healthcare provider is important for further evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking digoxin with meals, avoiding dairy products, or increasing potassium-rich foods are not specific instructions related to monitoring for adverse effects of digoxin therapy.
3. The client's B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) level is 691 pg/mL. Which intervention should the nurse implement when providing care for the client?
- A. Take daily weights and monitor trends.
- B. Encourage fluid intake to improve hydration.
- C. Elevate the legs above the level of the heart.
- D. Position the client supine with the head of the bed at 30 degrees.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevated BNP levels are indicative of heart failure, which often causes fluid retention and weight gain. Taking daily weights and monitoring trends allows the nurse to assess for changes in fluid status. This intervention helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the treatment plan and identifying worsening heart failure symptoms early. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) might exacerbate fluid overload in a client with elevated BNP levels. Elevating the legs (Choice C) and positioning the client supine with the head of the bed at 30 degrees (Choice D) are interventions more suitable for clients with hypotension, not specifically indicated for managing elevated BNP levels.
4. The nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client to prevent bleeding complications?
- A. Use a soft-bristle toothbrush and electric razor.
- B. Increase your intake of vitamin K-rich foods.
- C. Take aspirin if you have a headache.
- D. Avoid using ice packs for injuries.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent bleeding complications in a client on anticoagulant therapy is to use a soft-bristle toothbrush and an electric razor. These implements help reduce the risk of bleeding by being gentle on the skin and reducing the chances of cuts or abrasions that could lead to bleeding in individuals on anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with the action of anticoagulants. Choice C is incorrect as aspirin is a blood thinner and can increase the risk of bleeding when combined with anticoagulant therapy. Choice D is incorrect as ice packs can help reduce bleeding and swelling in injuries, but in a client on anticoagulant therapy, it is important to avoid potential trauma to the skin that could lead to bleeding.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Frequent urination
- B. Dry cough
- C. Tremors
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of enalapril that can indicate the development of angioedema or potentially life-threatening angioedema. An onset of dry cough should be reported to the provider promptly as it may require discontinuation of the medication to prevent further complications. Frequent urination, tremors, and dizziness are not typically associated with enalapril use and are less likely to be of immediate concern compared to a dry cough in this context.
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