the lpnlvn is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction mi which laboratory test result would the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Pharmacology for LPN

1. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.

2. A client with heart failure is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is to monitor the pulse before each dose and hold the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so it is crucial to assess the pulse rate before administration to prevent potential complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing fluid intake, reporting weight loss, or taking the medication with meals are not specific instructions related to the safe use of digoxin.

3. A client has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight gain is a common side effect of prednisone. The nurse should educate the client about the possibility of weight gain and the need to monitor it closely during treatment with prednisone. Choice B is incorrect because increasing vitamin K intake is not specifically related to prednisone therapy. Choice C is incorrect as prednisone is more likely to cause fluid retention rather than increased urinary output. Choice D is incorrect as dark, tarry stools are not a common side effect of prednisone.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of theophylline toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nausea is an early sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should closely monitor the client for this symptom as it can progress to more severe toxicity. Nausea can be a warning sign to prevent further complications and adjust the dosage as necessary. Drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of theophylline but not a specific sign of toxicity. Bradycardia (choice B) and constipation (choice D) are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

5. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.

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