ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is taking levodopa/carbidopa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a worsening of the disease and the need for adjustments in medication or other interventions. Therefore, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Weight gain, urinary retention, and dry mouth are not directly associated with levodopa/carbidopa therapy or indicative of a worsening condition in Parkinson's disease, making them less urgent findings to report to the provider.
2. The client with a history of angina pectoris is being discharged after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks.
- B. I will call the doctor if I develop a fever or drainage from my incisions.
- C. I will take my pain medication before doing any activities that might cause discomfort.
- D. I can resume my normal activities, including driving, as soon as I feel like it.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because after CABG surgery, patients need to follow specific guidelines for resuming activities, and driving is typically restricted for a certain period to ensure safety and proper recovery. Resuming normal activities too soon, including driving, can pose risks to the client's health and safety. It is essential to emphasize to the client the importance of following the healthcare provider's recommendations regarding activity restrictions post-surgery to prevent complications and promote optimal recovery. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that align with post-CABG discharge instructions, emphasizing the importance of avoiding heavy lifting, monitoring for signs of infection, and managing pain effectively.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Platelet count
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
4. Which statement indicates that a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) understands disease management?
- A. I will walk for one-half hour daily.
- B. As long as I exercise, I can eat anything I wish.
- C. My weight plays no role in this disease.
- D. My father's high cholesterol is irrelevant.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because regular physical activity, such as walking for half an hour daily, is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease (CAD) and promoting heart health. Walking helps improve circulation, reduce cholesterol levels, and maintain a healthy weight, all of which are crucial for managing CAD. Choice B is incorrect because diet also plays a significant role in CAD management, not just exercise. Choice C is incorrect because weight management is essential in controlling CAD risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because family history of high cholesterol can increase the risk of CAD, making it relevant for disease management.
5. What is the initial action the nurse should take for a client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) and is experiencing restlessness, agitation, and an increased respiratory rate?
- A. Administer oxygen.
- B. Administer morphine sulfate.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Take the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority action for a client experiencing restlessness, agitation, and an increased respiratory rate after a myocardial infarction (MI). This intervention helps ensure adequate oxygenation, improve cardiac function, and reduce the workload on the heart. Oxygen therapy takes precedence over administering medications like morphine sulfate or notifying the healthcare provider as it addresses the immediate need for oxygenation. Checking the blood pressure is also important but not as urgent as ensuring proper oxygen supply.
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