a nurse is assessing a client who is taking levodopacarbidopa which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Pharmacology for LPN

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is taking levodopa/carbidopa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a worsening of the disease and the need for adjustments in medication or other interventions. Therefore, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Weight gain, urinary retention, and dry mouth are not directly associated with levodopa/carbidopa therapy or indicative of a worsening condition in Parkinson's disease, making them less urgent findings to report to the provider.

2. A client is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a serious electrolyte imbalance that can cause various cardiac and muscular issues. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report hypokalemia to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Albuterol is a bronchodilator medication commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma. Tachycardia, an increased heart rate, can be a potential side effect of albuterol, indicating excessive stimulation of the beta receptors. This side effect should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly to assess the need for further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and drowsiness are not typically associated with albuterol use and are less likely to require immediate reporting compared to tachycardia.

4. When reinforcing dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease prescribed a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet, which food item should the nurse advise the client to choose?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Grilled salmon is the correct choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet because it is low in saturated fat and high in omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. Whole milk, fried chicken, and bacon and eggs are higher in saturated fats and cholesterol, making them less suitable choices for this client. Whole milk is high in saturated fat, while fried chicken and bacon and eggs are sources of both saturated fat and cholesterol, which can negatively impact heart health in clients with coronary artery disease.

5. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.

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